On 13 Sep., 13:26, 1Z <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> On 12 Sep, 01:50, Youness Ayaita <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> > No(-)Justification Justifies The Everything Ensemble
> > The amazing result of these simple considerations is that we get the
> > Everything ensemble gratis! We don't need any postulate. But how is
> > this transition made? At this point I remind you of the second section
> > of this article: The Everything ensemble, or the statement that
> > everything exists, is the interpretation of our new perspective in the
> > everyday theory. In our everyday theory, we use the concept of
> > 'existence' as a property of things. A property p is given by the
> > ensemble of (imaginable) things that have that property. Thus we can
> > identify the property p with the ensemble of (imaginable) things
> > having that property.
> That isn't how properties are defined, and existence isn't a (first
> order) property.
> We place things into ensembles (classes, as opposed to sets) on the
> basis of their properties;
> we don't read properties off from ensembles. Properties have to come
> first, or we would not
> be able to classify individuals that we had not encountered before.

I see two perfectly equivalent ways to define a property. This is
somehow analogous to the mathematical definition of a function f: Of
course, in order to practically decide which image f(x) is assigned to
a preimage x, we usually must know a formula first. But the function f
is not changed if I do not consider the formula, but the whole set
{(x,f(x))} instead, where x runs over all preimages.

Concerning properties, we normally have some procedure to define which
imaginable thing has that property. But I can change my perspective
and think of the property as being the set of imaginable things having
the property. This is how David Lewis defines properties (e.g. in his
book "On the Plurality of Worlds").

If you insist on the difference between the two definitions, you may
call your property "property1" and Lewis's property "property2".

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