Hi Brent,

On 9/5/2011 3:50 PM, meekerdb wrote:
On 9/5/2011 12:02 PM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:
Realism and nominalism in philosophy are related to universals (I guess that numbers could be probably considered as universals as well). A simple example:


A is a person;
B is a person.

Does A is equal to B? The answer is no, A and B are after all different persons. Yet then the question would be if something universal and related to a term "person" exists in A and B.

Realism says that universals do exist independent from the mind (so in this sense it has nothing to do with the physical realism and materialism),

I think of that as Platonism. I think of realism as just the theory that things exist independent of minds.

Brent

How does realism explain the means by which knowledge of these 'things that exist independent of the mind" obtains? Is there some form of interaction between those 'independent things' and our minds? If so, that mechanism is this and how does it work?

Onward!

Stephen


nominalism that they are just notation and do not exist as such.

It seems that this page is consistent with what Prof Hoenen says

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Problem_of_universals

Well, he has not discussed what idealism has to do with universals. Please have a look. If I understand your argument correctly, according to it the universals do exist literally.

Evgenii


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