Hi Brent,
On 9/5/2011 3:50 PM, meekerdb wrote:
On 9/5/2011 12:02 PM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:
Realism and nominalism in philosophy are related to universals (I
guess that numbers could be probably considered as universals as
well). A simple example:
A is a person;
B is a person.
Does A is equal to B? The answer is no, A and B are after all
different persons. Yet then the question would be if something
universal and related to a term "person" exists in A and B.
Realism says that universals do exist independent from the mind (so
in this sense it has nothing to do with the physical realism and
materialism),
I think of that as Platonism. I think of realism as just the theory
that things exist independent of minds.
Brent
How does realism explain the means by which knowledge of these
'things that exist independent of the mind" obtains? Is there some form
of interaction between those 'independent things' and our minds? If so,
that mechanism is this and how does it work?
Onward!
Stephen
nominalism that they are just notation and do not exist as such.
It seems that this page is consistent with what Prof Hoenen says
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Problem_of_universals
Well, he has not discussed what idealism has to do with universals.
Please have a look. If I understand your argument correctly,
according to it the universals do exist literally.
Evgenii
--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to [email protected].
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to
[email protected].
For more options, visit this group at
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.
