On 24 Aug 2012, at 03:09, Jesse Mazer wrote:

What do you mean "the flaw for Godel"? There is no doubt that Godel's mathematical proof is correct, and if you think Chalmers is suggesting any such doubt in his paper you are misreading him.


I guess so. Chalmers can't be that bad.

Did Chalmers offer any detailed commentary suggesting he had read through the whole thing carefully? If not it's possible he skimmed it and missed that sentence, or just read the abstract and decided it didn't interest him, but sent the note out of politeness.

That would be astonishing too.

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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