On 12/17/2012 5:11 PM, Craig Weinberg wrote:
Taxing the rich does not redistribute the income, it adjusts the
expenses so that those who benefit disproportionately from the public
resources pay their share for an educated labor force, policed cities,
well maintained roads, bridges, ports, airports, the grotesquely
hypertrophied military to enforce monopolistic trade policies
Could explain how it is that it is possible to "proportionally
benefit" from public resources? Are you saying that resources are the
natural property of the State and not of those willing to do the
investment of time and labor to exploit them?
By my logic, if the taxes of the public where taken from individual
people, then the public resources belong proportionately to those
individuals that paid the taxes. This means that if Fred paid more taxes
than Albert then the public resources belong that much more to Fred than
Albert. Simple math... How do you calculate "benefit"?
I don't understand the collectivization of people into equivalence
classes. Numbers are equivalence classes, not people! I am trying to
understand your thesis, not saying your wrong. ;-)
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