On Sat, Mar 8, 2014 at 3:11 PM, Edgar L. Owen <[email protected]> wrote:

> Jesse,
>
> PS: And in your nice long numerical example, which I thank you for, it
> seems to me what you are doing is calculating the proper time length of
> every segment of A's trip in terms of C's proper time. Isn't that correct?
>

No, it's in terms of coordinate time in C's rest frame. "C's proper time"
can only be defined between pairs of events on C's own worldline. Of course
if C is inertial as in this example, then the coordinate time of events on
C's worldline is the same as the proper time between those events, but it
doesn't make sense to talk about "C's proper time" between events that are
NOT on C's worldline.



>
> But if so aren't you in fact establishing a 1:1 correlation of proper
> times between A and C with your method?
>
> And isn't that what you keep telling me CAN'T BE DONE?
>

You can of course define a correlation in proper times of separated clocks
A and B if you specify what frame's definition of simultaneity you want to
use. Then you can find a pair of events a1 and b1 that are simultaneous in
this frame, and a pair of events a2 and b2 that are simultaneous in this
frame, and compare the proper time on A's worldline between a1 and a2 with
the proper time on B's worldline between b1 and b2. But this sort of
correlation will differ depending on what frame you choose (because the
simultaneous events will differ), and what can't be done is find any basis
in relativity for saying that one frame's correlation represents the "real"
correlation while other frames' do not.

Jesse

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