On Tue, Aug 12, 2014 at 6:17 AM, meekerdb <[email protected]> wrote:

>  On 8/11/2014 9:27 PM, LizR wrote:
>
>  On 12 August 2014 15:50, meekerdb <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>>  On 8/11/2014 8:26 PM, LizR wrote:
>>
>>  Well, I guess a physical UD would be made robust against quantum
>> uncertainty, like all computers, but why do we need to assume QM apply?
>>
>>  The argument assumes it doesn't apply, so that the computation can be
>> deterministic. I don't know that it affects the argument, but worries me a
>> little that we make this unrealistic assumption; especially if we have
>> include a whole 'world context' for the MG simulation.
>>
>
>  Ah, I see. One of the assumptions of comp is that consciousness is a
> classical computation. At least I think that's what it means to say that
> the Church-Turing thesis applies. I suppose a question here is whether QM
> can introduce some "magic" that allows it to create consciousness from a
> purely materialistic basis. If so then there's no need for comp because
> consciousness isn't classically emulable....yes?
>
>
> Although a quantum computer can compute some things much faster than a
> classical computer, it still can't compute things that are Turing
> uncomputable, so I don't think it provides that kind of magic.  I was
> thinking more of the fact that the recorded inputs to B and the response to
> the projection of the movie onto the graph will not be perfectly
> deterministic, but only with high statistical probability.  Also, in QM it
> generally makes a difference to the evolution of the system whether other
> states are available even if they are never occupied.
>
>
>        This is what I don't see. Why do A's internal processes have
>>> meaning, while B's don't - given that they're physically identical?
>>>
>>    B's have meaning too, but it is derivative meaning because the
>> meanings are copies of A's and A's refer to a world.  So it's an
>> unwarranted conclusion to say, see B is conscious and there's no physics
>> going on.  There's plenty of physics going on in the past that causally
>> connects B to A's experience.  Just because it's not going on at the moment
>> B is supposed to be experiencing it isn't determinative.  Real QM physics
>> can require counterfactual correctness in the past (e.g. Wheeler's quantum
>> erasure, Elitzur and Dolev's quantum liar's paradox).
>>
>
>  Well, as I've mentioned previously I think time symmetry may sort out
> those awkward retroactive quantum measurements. But anyway, I guess this is
> putting the schrodinger's cat before the horse, in that comp only assumes
> classical computation and attempts to derive a quantum world from it. So I
> guess we can't necessarily assume real QM physics, or at least not unless
> we've shown comp to be based on false premises or internally inconsistent,
> or have a rival theory of consciousness arising naturally from qm and
> materialism, or some other good reason to do so. I think what I'm trying to
> say here is that to assume comp must work with real physics is to assume
> from the start that there is no reversal.
>
>
> Well there's also the question of whether comp and the UD solve the hard
> problem any better than psychophysical parallelism.
>

I'm not sure that comp and UD propose to solve the hard problem, as much as
proposing why it's not solvable.


> Pierz did a good job of examining this and I made some comments on his
> post.  I would like to look at comp+UD as just another scientific
> hypothesis which we will adopt when it makes some surprising prediction
> which is proved out by tests.  Obviously getting some surprising, trestable
> prediction out of it is likely to be very difficulty.  But unlike Bruno I'm
> not much persuaded by logical inference from logic, Church-Turing, or Peano
> arithmetic because I think they aren't "The Truth" but just models we use
> in our thinking.  Just reflect on how all logicians and philosophers would
> have said, "No object can be in two different places at the same time. It's
> just logic." - before quantum mechanics.
>

It is my impression that progress in logic is done by removing all that is
non-abstract. It's a simplification effort. My difficulties with logic
usually arise from not being able to grasp the counter-intuitive simple
level at which it operates. Confusing common sense with logic is a common
mistake. You see this a lot on you tube these days, where well-meaning
atheists like to say "it's just logic" when they are in fact referring to
scientific common sense. I am an atheist, an agnostic and a lover of
science, so I never like this -- it's resorting to the tricks of the
"enemy".


>
>
>       I'm not sure I follow you here. Why does making the simulation
>> bigger invalidate the argument? Is there a cut-off point?
>>
>>  I don't know about a cut-off.  The argument is a reductio.  The
>> conclusion Bruno makes is that no physical process is necessary to support
>> consciousness,
>>
>
>  OK
>
>
>>  consciousness can be instantiated in a Turing machine simulation.
>>
>
>  Sorry to split the sentence, but I must admit I thought that latter part
> was his initial assumption, rather than his conclusion?
>
>
> The initial assumption is consciousness can be instantiated by a physical
> computation (one that replicates the I/O of your neurons), but step 8 is to
> show it must be independent of the physical computation and can be
> instantiated by an abstraction.
>
>
>
>
>> But my argument is that the simulation must also simulate a world that
>> the consciousness interacts with, is conscious *of*, that a physical world
>> is necessary for consciousness.  If it's a simulated consciousness, then it
>> can be a simulated physics but it has to be some physics.
>>
>
>  Right, yes, I see. Or I think I see. That's implying that the comp
> argument is assuming what it sets out to show, that is, it sets out to show
> that physics can be derived from consciousness as computation, but if it
> has to introduce physics to show this, then the argument has become
> circular. So if interactions with an environment are necessary for
> consciousness to exist (as part of the definition of consciousness) then
> the argument is necessarily circular. The question is whether the
> interaction is necessary, or incidental - "incidental" would mean that
> consciousness has arisen in a physical world through evolution, and hence
> is highly specialised as an agent interacting with that world, but it could
> at least in theory arise some other way (e.g. inside a computer). Although
> it's hard to imagine how any conscious being could learn anything useful
> without interacting with some sort of world - it would sure be a blank
> slate otherwise. So I guess the question boils down to: is a blank slate
> consciousness - one that isn't aware of anything (except its own existence,
> I guess) possible?
>
>
> It is in Bruno's conception.  It is MOST conscious because it can go
> anywhere from there, be anybody or any being.  That's why he thinks
> intelligence, which he deprecates as mere "competence", detracts from
> consciousness.  It has narrowed or directed consciousness.  As you can see
> that is quite different from my idea of consciousness as something that
> arose as a way for evolution to take advantage of perception mechanisms in
> doing learning, prediction, and planning.  I think consciousness is a
> certain kind of thought and it's about something.  Bruno thinks it's a
> mystic property of relations between computations, e.g. being provable.
>

In a more naive way, I arrived at the same conclusion before reading Bruno:
that intelligence and consciousness are different things. I did it through
introspection. I know highly intelligent people that think like you. I know
I am being honest and I fully believe you are being honest too, so I see
this divergence as part of the mystery, that merits investigation.


>
>
>   Or to put it yet another way, is Descartes right that "je pense donc je
> suis" or isn't that enough?
>
>  Which I have to admit I don't know the answer to.
>
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