On Fri, Oct 24, 2014 at 10:53:08PM -0700, meekerdb wrote:
> On 10/24/2014 6:53 PM, Russell Standish wrote:
> >On Fri, Oct 24, 2014 at 10:35:36AM -0700, meekerdb wrote:
> >>So are you simply assuming there is a "winner", i.e. that the
> >>relevant statistics exist in the limit?  Even if they do, it's not
> >>clear that they exist for our experience which is not "in the
> >>limit".  It seems that you are assuming something like "The
> >>probability of a number being even is 1/2."
> >>
> >This was Jean Delahaye's argument. For physical probabilities (Born
> >rule and all that), it suffices to assume that in a situation where 1
> >bit of information is generated (eg the WM duplication thought
> >experiment), then whether that bit is 0 or 1 has equal probability (ie
> >relative probability of 1/2).
> 
> But we're trying to define probability without assuming physics.  If
> you actually assume physics then there's no reason so suppose
> W=M=1/2.  It could well be W=0.5001 and M=0.4999.
> 

If W=0.5001 and M=0.4999, seeing Washington will give us
0.999711.. bits of information. Seeing Moscow gives us 1.00028... bits
of information.

Cheers

-- 

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Prof Russell Standish                  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics      [email protected]
University of New South Wales          http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 Latest project: The Amoeba's Secret 
         (http://www.hpcoders.com.au/AmoebasSecret.html)
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