Hi Russell, thanks for your answer... I will definitely give your book a 
closer reading in the near future, if I can get my poor philosopher's head 
to understand the mathematics :)

I hope you don't mind answering some questions in advance. You wrote:

Exactly. The source of the symmetry breaking is the action of an 

> observer. Symmetry is restored by considering all other observers out 
> there in the "Nothing"-verse (more commonly called the Plenitude). 
>

This what I don't get: How can there already exist observers (or at least 
one observer) prior to the symmetry breaking, given that it is this 
breaking that turns zero-info into info? In other words: if you already 
presuppose an observer, your Nothing is not absolutely nothing... it is an 
observed nothing, but in my view we can't even presuppose an observer if we 
want to answer Leibniz' question by starting from nothing...  I admit there 
is some paradox involved in imagining a 'situation' in which nothing 
exists, not even an observer... we have to imagine a situation where we 
ourselves do not exist... to some extent that's impossible of course... 
after all, I have to exist in order to imagine my own non-existencee... so 
some observer is always pressupposed (Kan would call this the 
transcendental subject)... but in my view we can't let that presupposed 
observer interact with the original nothing to cause symmetry 
breaking....How do you think about this?

On a more positive note, I like the idea that nothingness is perfectly 
symmetrical.... If we define symmetry as remaining the same under 
transformations, shouldn't we then say that nothing is the most symmetrical 
entity, since nothing can change it? And if that is the case, then the fact 
that nature becomes ever more symmetrical the more we delve into 
fundamentals (ever more elementary particles and laws) suggests that we 
ultimately arive at nothing since that's the most symmetric.... this is 
speculative, of course, but there seems to be some logic to it...

Peter


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