On Sun, Apr 17, 2016 at 9:19 PM, Bruce Kellett <[email protected]>
 wrote:

> On 18/04/2016 10:11 am, Jesse Mazer wrote:
>
> On Sun, Apr 17, 2016 at 7:34 PM, Bruce Kellett <[email protected]>
>  wrote:
>
>>
>> The future light cones of the observers will overlap at a time determined
>> by their initial separation, regardless of whether they send signals to
>> each other or not.
>>
>
> Of course, I never meant to suggest otherwise. Imagining a central
> observer who receives messages about each experiment was just conceptually
> simpler than imagining an arbitrary system that is affected in some
> unspecified way by each experimenter's results along with every other part
> of that system's past light cone. But you certainly don't *need* to use
> that particular example.
>
>
> The issue is to find a local explanation of the correlations: appealing to
> some arbitrary system that is affected in some unspecified way. But my
> example shows that no exchange of information after the separate worlds of
> the two experimenters have fully decohered can ever explain the quantum
> correlations.
>

Why do you think it shows that? Does "explain" mean something more than
giving a mathematical model that generates the correct correlations, or is
that sufficient?


> This so-called "matching up" is pure fantasy. Who does this matching? If
>> the central umpire is to do the matching, he has to have the power to
>> eliminate cases that disagree with the quantum prediction. Who has that
>> power?
>>
>
>
> The laws of physics would do the matching in some well-defined
> mathematical way.
>
>
> I agree that the laws of physics will 'prevent' the formation of any
> worlds in which the laws of physics are violated. That is not the issue.
> The issue is: how do the laws of physics act in order to achieve this. Do
> they act locally or non-locally? If they act locally, then you are required
> to provided the local mechanism whereby they so act. You are not doing this
> at the moment.
>

Similar to my question above, what do you mean by "mechanism" ? Do you mean
something more than simply "mathematical rule that gives you the set of
possible outcomes (with associated probabilities or at least probability
amplitudes) at each local region of spacetime, given only the set of
possible outcomes at regions in the past light cone"? Or would you say that
such a mathematical rule would in itself be sufficient to qualify as what
you mean by "mechanism"? If the latter, I already showed that you can have
a mathematical rule that generates the correct correlations locally in a
simple toy model involving experimenters at different locations measuring
entangled particles, and I think the quote from Mark Rubin's paper at least
strongly suggests he has a general mathematical model like this for
arbitrary sets of particles, one where as he says, information is
transferred from one location to another by a strictly "local differential
equation".



> If you don't yet see the difference, then you need to think about it a bit
> more.
>

Could you please explain what *you* think is the difference? Just because
someone doesn't come to the same conclusion as you doesn't mean they have
simply failed to think about it sufficiently, it may be that there is some
genuine foundational disagreement, but it's hard to determine unless the
argument for the differing conclusion is made explicit.



> Of course, what else? But the final claim is invalid: the EPR correlations
> are not explained in such a way in the Everett (or any other)
> interpretation. You either have non-locality or you have magic, unless you
> go for 't Hooft's version of superdeterminism. You seem to be plumping for
> magic.
>


Well, as above, I don't know whether "magic" simply refers to the lack of a
mathematical rule, or if you think some rules that are mathematically
well-defined and generate the correct statistics in a local way would
nevertheless be dismissed as too magical.

Jesse

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