On 11/19/2017 6:57 PM, [email protected] wrote:


On Saturday, November 18, 2017 at 8:33:31 PM UTC-7, [email protected] wrote:



    On Saturday, November 18, 2017 at 3:16:06 PM UTC-7, Brent wrote:



        On 11/18/2017 12:59 PM, [email protected] wrote:
        If the physics of both regions is identical, and the
        observable region is astronomically small as near t=0 as we
        can get with GR -- which IIUC you have agree to -- what's the
        argument for saying the UNobservable region is spatially
        infinite at that time? TIA, AG


        If it's infinite and you multiply it by an infinitesimal scale
        factor...it can still be infinite.

        Brent


    I could be fixated on an erroneous pov, but if the observable and
    unobservable regions obey the same laws of physics, and the former
    is getting progressively smaller as we go back in time -- both as
    spatial extent and as space-time -- for either to be infinite at
    t=0, via tunneling or whatever, seems to suggest a discontinuity.
    Or going the other way, from infinite at the tunneling or creation
    "moment", to finite in virtually no time duration, is equally hard
    to process. AG


So is it your view the universe starts out flat, tunnels through the vacuum as an infinite spatial hyperplane, and the expansion just means. for example, that the average distance between galaxies has been increasing, from their formation until present? AG

I'm not a cosmologist, but it's a possible view.

Brent

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