On Saturday, November 18, 2017 at 3:16:06 PM UTC-7, Brent wrote: > > > > On 11/18/2017 12:59 PM, [email protected] <javascript:> wrote: > > If the physics of both regions is identical, and the observable region is > astronomically small as near t=0 as we can get with GR -- which IIUC you > have agree to -- what's the argument for saying the UNobservable region is > spatially infinite at that time? TIA, AG > >> > If it's infinite and you multiply it by an infinitesimal scale factor...it > can still be infinite. > > Brent >
I could be fixated on an erroneous pov, but if the observable and unobservable regions obey the same laws of physics, and the former is getting progressively smaller as we go back in time -- both as spatial extent and as space-time -- for either to be infinite at t=0, via tunneling or whatever, seems to suggest a discontinuity. Or going the other way, from infinite at the tunneling or creation "moment", to finite in virtually no time duration, is equally hard to process. AG -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Everything List" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to [email protected]. To post to this group, send email to [email protected]. Visit this group at https://groups.google.com/group/everything-list. For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/d/optout.
