On 5/20/2018 2:54 PM, [email protected] wrote:


On Sunday, May 20, 2018 at 9:13:42 PM UTC, Brent wrote:



    On 5/20/2018 1:44 PM, [email protected] <javascript:> wrote:


    On Sunday, May 20, 2018 at 7:29:42 PM UTC, Brent wrote:



        On 5/20/2018 3:47 AM, [email protected] wrote:


        On Sunday, May 20, 2018 at 6:52:41 AM UTC, Brent wrote:



            On 5/19/2018 8:19 PM, [email protected] wrote:


            On Saturday, May 19, 2018 at 3:59:03 PM UTC, Brent wrote:



                On 5/18/2018 10:53 PM, [email protected] wrote:


                On Saturday, May 19, 2018 at 5:29:33 AM UTC, Brent
                wrote:



                    On 5/18/2018 10:14 PM, [email protected] wrote:

                    *So why don't you draw the obvious inference?
                    If those other worlds don't exist -- which if
                    I can read English has been your passionate
                    position all along -- then quantum
                    measurements in this world, the only world,
                    are statistical and hence NOT reversible in
                    principle. AG*

                        but it is different in each branch of the
                        wave function, so reversing this branch
                        does nothing for the others, and does not
                        restore the original superposition. Thus
                        the process is irreversible in principle
                        (nomologically irreversible -- to reverse
                        violates the laws of physics).


                    *But if those other worlds don't exist, it
                    makes no sense whatever to rely on them to
                    establish irreversible in principle in this
                    world (as distinguished from statistically
                    irreversible or irreversible FAPP). It seems
                    you want to have it both ways; that many
                    worlds really don't exist. but quantum
                    measurements in this world are irreversible
                    in principle due the existence of many
                    worlds. AG*

                    You don't handle uncertainty well, do you.

                    Brent


                You know, it's not a perfect analogy, but I don't
                believe that when I pull the one arm bandit with
                64 million possible outcomes, that 64 million
                (minus one) worlds are created, each with an
                identical copy of me, getting those other
                outcomes. What do you believe? AG

                I believe I'll wait for a better theory.  One that
                includes gravity and spacetime and consciousness.

                Brent


            I see. But you seem too ready to defend the MWI when it
            appears to imply irreversible in principle. Or do you
            accept Bruce's claim that the projection operator
            implies irreversible in principle? AG

            Either of them implies irreversiblity. Whether it is "in
            principle" depends on what principle you invoke,
            mathematics, practice, ...?  MWI puts information in
            orthogonal subspaces where we exist in copies such that
            each copy can act only in one subspace and hence cannot
            put together the information from other subspaces.  A
            projection operator is just a mathematical model of this
            confinement to one subspace.

            Brent


        Please; no evasive games. We can forget about the MWI, given
        its absurdity. Does, or does not the projection operator
        imply irreversibility in principle as Bruce claims? AG

        Sure, a projection operator throws away information so its
        action is irreversible.  If I project a star onto the
        celestial sphere I preserve its longitude and latitude, but
        it doesn't show how far away it is.  That's why the MWI
        advocates say projection conflicts with all the rest of
        fundamental physics which is described by evolution that is
        at least reversible in the mathematical sense.

        Brent


    But how do you know that the projection operator represents an
    actual physical process? It could be just a bookkeeping device to
    describe the fact that when many possible outcomes are possible,
    we get a particular outcome.

    Exactly.  The quantum Bayesian take this view


How does "Baysian" fit into this picture? Can't one interpret the SWE as a representation of what we know about a system, without being a Baysian? AG

    and consider Schroedinger's equation also as a personal book
    keeping device of what one knows about a system and then the Born
    rule and projection operators fit neatly into the scheme of
    updating one's personal knowledge.


I would delete "personal" from your comment. We're referring to the knowledge of any observer. AG


    ISTM, that to argue for "irreversible in principle", it is
    insufficient to appeal solely to the properties of the projection
    operator. AG
    Exactly what led to Everett, MWI, and decoherence theory. But at
    the price of having multiple, orthogonal "worlds" to explain the
    appearance of randomness.  Of course some people hate randomness
    and are quite happy to have multiple worlds instead.


Looks like I am in the decoherence camp; namely, that when a quantum measurement occurs, entanglements with reservoir states somehow suppresses all outcomes but one

But that "somehow" is the magic of the Copenhagen interpretation. Decoherence is the process of making subspaces (worlds) orthogonal, but it doesn't choose one and "suppress" (vanish?) the others.  The all continue to exist and to be orthogonal.

, and the process is statistically irreversible (irreversible FAPP) since all entanglements are reversible (or do they run amok of Bell's theorem?). I can't prove it of course, but it seems like the most sober, conservative assumption given the choices. What I object to about Bruce's approach, is that he simply claims "irreversible in principle" based on the projection operator, and won't admit it's just his opinion, or else make a real effort to argue it. It's like he now sees himself as the *Oracle from Australia*. AG

I objected to the "in principle" because there are different possible principles.  Is the information just gone, as in CI.   Or is it put into subspaces that are statistically orthogonal (i.e. FAPP) and therefore beyond any physical reversal, but still experssed by reversible mathematics.

Brent


    Brent

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