I give up. This is going nowhere.

Bruce


From: *Jason Resch* <[email protected] <mailto:[email protected]>>

On Thu, Jun 21, 2018 at 11:48 PM, Bruce Kellett <[email protected] <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:

    From: *Jason Resch* <[email protected]
    <mailto:[email protected]>>

    On Thu, Jun 21, 2018 at 12:56 AM, Bruce Kellett
    <[email protected] <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:

        There are only two photons, but each has two possible
        polarizations. When you measure the polarization, you split
        into two branches, one for each possible result.  The
        partner photon reaches the other person on each of your
        branches, but if everything is purely local, the photon that
        is remotely measured cannot know which result you obtained
        (it cannot know which of your branches it is actually on),
        so it has indeterminate polarization, and when measured,
        there is necessarily equal probability for either result.


    I think this is the heart of our disagreement. You are seeing the
    entangled photons are still distinct objects without a correlation.

    The entangled photons are a non-separable unity. But if everything
    is local, the measurements by Alice and Bob, being space-like
    separated, must be equivalent. If Alice splits into two branches,
    so must Bob. The correlation arises because the entangled pair is
    not a local object -- it has no purely local description.



Something that spreads at <= speed of light, and effects and interacts with only the local particles/fields is not a non-local phenomenon. Here the photon pair (under many worlds) matches both of these qualifiers perfectly.



    There are two events where some human experimenter gets entangled
with a photon (you could saw under MWI that two splits occur). Now I think you ask why does the second measurement know to
    "split the right way", but it doesn't, and doesn't need to. Both
    experimenters contagiously contract the superposition of the
    photon they measure (entangle themselves with).

    What on earth does that mean? "contagiously contract the
    superposition". It can only mean that the superposition is
    non-local, and that you are actually making use of this
    non-locality without being aware of it.


The superposition starts with the creation of the photon pair, and spreads to everything that measures/interacts with it, and anything that measures/interacts with the thing that measured it, ad infinitum.


        This means that the photon that is on the branch in which
        your photon passed the polarizer can either pass the remote
        polarizer, or be absorbed, with 50% probability for each.
        Similarly for the photon that is on the branch in which your
        photon was absorbed. The outcome by considering both branches
        is four possible worlds, one for each combination of 'pass'
        and 'absorb' results. Two of these worlds violate angular
        momentum conservation. How do you rule out these worlds with
        only local interactions?


    The photon pair was created at one point in space time, it
    traveled only at light speed to two locations, where its
    superpositional state became entangled with the local environment
    at its point(s) of measurement.

    To say there are 4 possible worlds here, I think is to assume
    measuring the same photon twice using the same polarization
    angle, can produce inconsistent results.

    You are confusing measurements on the entangled pair with repeated
    measurement of the same single photon. The entangled state is a
    unity, but it is not the same as a single photon.



They are analogous, and by rotating the picture of space-time when looking at the electron-positron pair in the original EPR thought experiment, you can view the electron-positron pair as the same particle. In the conventional view we see it as a pi meson decaying into e- and e+, with opposite spins. But rotate things about 90-degrees and you see it as an electron interacting with a Pi meson and changing directions.

        Look at it this way. The two measurements are made at
        space-like separation. If everything is local, the
        measurements must be independent.


    There is where I disagree.  The actions are independent, but the
    results are not.

    Then there must be a non-local effect! If the measurements are
    made independently at a space-like separation, there can be no
    correlation without either a common cause or non-locality. Common
    cause is ruled out by the statistics of repeated measurements of
    such entangled pairs at different angles.


Common cause isn't ruled out by Bell for measurements that have more than one outcome.




        If the measurements are independent they cannot be correlated
        -- that is one possible operational definition of independence.


    But when measuring an entangled photon pair, they must be correlated.

    Exactly. So how did this correlation arise?



From the time of the pair's creation, each element of the the pair has already measured the other. Each element of the pair (while in this superposition) proceeds at <= light speed to a location where it will be measured. Since each element of the pair has already measured the other, measuring either element is equivalent to measuring both (or you might say the same particle, under Feynman's view of antiparticles).



        Since the measurement results are known to be correlated,
        they cannot be independent. Since there can be no sub-luminal
        interaction between the two measurements, this correlation
        can only be a non-local effect. In the case that I have been
        discussing, quantum mechanics predicts 100% correlation.
        There is no way this can be achieved locally because the
        singlet you are measuring is rotationally symmetric and has
        no intrinsic polarization state that can be carried
        subluminally between the experimenters.

        In other words, the structure of the singlet state rules out
        a common cause explanation for the 100% correlation. Bell's
        theorem then rules out any /local/ hidden variable explanation.

        Look, the singlet state is:

           |psi> = (|+>|-> + |->|+>).

        When Alice makes her measurement she effectively splits this
        state into the |+>|-> state on one branch, and the |->|+>
        state on the other branch.


    I would not say she splits the state, I would say she splits
    herself, by now becoming part of the state.  The super position
never goes away so you get two Alices: (Alice * |+>|->) + (Alice |->|+>)

    The "(Alice * |+>|->)" knows that Bob she will hear from who
    performs the same measurement of the photon of the entangled pair
    will be the Bob that sees the - photon, and "(Alice |->|+>)"
    knows the that the Bob she will hear from who performs the same
    measurement of the photon of the entangled pair will be the Bob
    who sees the + photon.

    How does she know this? And why can't the Alice who sees the |+>
    not hear from the Bob who sees the |+>.


|+> Alice is no longer in the same branch as the one containing |+> Bob. They're in the same superposition though.

    Both must exist if everything is purely local, you know.



Both exist, but the |+> Alice is in the branch where the |-> photon belongs to "her" Bob.


        But if everything is purely local, this split does not happen
        for Bob before he makes his measurement.


    True Bob has not yet entangled himself. But you speak of splits
    as if they are instantaneous things that create two whole
    universes instantly. This is not what MWI predicts.

    We are doing measurements with people and macro apparatus that is
    not isolated from the environment. So the decoherence following
    the measurement splits the world -- locally, of course, but that
    is all that is required. Bob is at a space-like separation, so the
    split occasioned by Alice's measurement has not encompassed him at
    the time he makes his measurement. Is that so hard to grasp?


I agree with this.




        So he, too, measures the original entangled |psi> state, and
        he also must have 50% probability of either result. However,
        quantum mechanics says that when Alice measures |+>, Bob
        necessarily measures only the |-> component of his photon;
        and when Alice measures |->, Bob necessarily measures only
        the |+> component of his photon.


    Correct.

        This is how the correlation comes about. But this is
        non-local -- the non-separable initial state is separated
        non-locally by the measurements.


    But they're measuring (entangling themselves with) the same
    superpositional state: the entangled (mutually already measured)
    photon pair.

    What you say here makes no sense. Alice cannot entangle herself
    with Bob's photon when she makes her measurement -- it is at a
    spacelike separation. Or rather, any entanglement that does occur
    must be non-local. The non-separability of the state means the
    correlations are non-local in origin.


I am not sure what is meant by "non-separability of the state".







         If I send a photon through a filter orientated at 0
        degrees, and it passes through, and goes all the way to
        Pluto where you measure the filter at 0 degrees and it also
        passes, you would not say this violates locality, would you?

        No, because its passage to Pluto is at the speed of light.


    Same as with the traversal of the photons in the photon pair, is
    it not?

    If you think these cases are equivalent, then I am sorry, but
    there is nothing more I can say that will ever convince you of
    your error.


You deleted my quote from Feynman. Did you disagree with what he says?

    One obvious problem with your attempt to equate the measurements
    on the entangled pair with repeated measurements of a single
    photon is that in neither case do you make any use of many-worlds
    to explain the EPR-type correlations.There is no violation of
    counterfactual definiteness, no use is made of measurements that
    could have been performed, but were not.


The EPR-type correlations were explained in the paper I provided, but you said this was "being opaque" and adding confusion. It was your suggestion to keep things simple with an identical orientation for the polarization filter.

    So what, exactly, is MWI giving you in your purported explanation
    of EPR that is not already available in a collapse model?


Determinism, locality, time-symmetry, reversibility, QM obeyed at all times, no classical-QM cut off point, the absence of FTL effects or influences, and a simpler theory of QM.

Jason


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