On Tuesday, July 17, 2018 at 12:00:08 PM UTC, Bruno Marchal wrote:
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> On 16 Jul 2018, at 23:08, [email protected] <javascript:> wrote:
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> On Monday, July 16, 2018 at 8:30:58 AM UTC-6, Bruno Marchal wrote:
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>> On 13 Jul 2018, at 01:55, [email protected] wrote:
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>> On Wednesday, July 11, 2018 at 2:16:24 PM UTC-6, [email protected] 
>> wrote:
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>>>
>>> On Tuesday, July 10, 2018 at 4:42:44 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On 7/10/2018 3:01 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>
>>>> *IIRC, the above quote is also in the Wiki article. It's not a coherent 
>>>> argument; not even an argument but an ASSERTION. Let's raise the level of 
>>>> discourse. It says we always get a or b, no intermediate result when the 
>>>> system is in a superposition of states A and B.. Nothing new here. Key 
>>>> question: why does this imply the system is in states A and B 
>>>> SIMULTANEOUSLY before the measurement? AG  *
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Because, in theory and in some cases in practice, there is a direct 
>>>> measurement of the superposition state, call it C, such that you can 
>>>> directly measure C and always get c, but when you have measured and 
>>>> confirmed the system is in state c and then you measure A/B you get a or b 
>>>> at random.   The easiest example is SG measurements of sliver atom spin 
>>>> orientation where spin UP can be measured left/right and get a LEFT or a 
>>>> RIGHT at random, but it can be measured up/down and you always get UP.  
>>>> Any 
>>>> particular  orientation can be *written* as a superposition of two 
>>>> orthogonal states.  
>>>>
>>>
>>> *When you're trying to explain esoteric issues to a moron in physics, 
>>> you need to be more explicit. These are the issues that cause confusion and 
>>> caused me to fail to "get it". After some subsequent posts, you seem to be 
>>> saying that in an SG spin experiment where the measurement base is UP/DN, 
>>> the system being measured is ALSO in a superposed LEFT/RIGHT state which is 
>>> also measured (by an SG device designed to measure spin?), and that the 
>>> LEFT/RIGHT superposed state persists with some persistent eigenvalue after 
>>> UP/DN is measured. It's murky for us morons.  How does one get the system 
>>> to be measured in a superposition of RIGHT/LEFT; what is the operator for 
>>> which that superposition is an eigenstate, and what is the value of the 
>>> persistent eigenvalue?*
>>>
>>> *Furthermore, you finally assert that since the RIGHT/LEFT state 
>>> persists -- meaning that particle is in some DEFINITE state after the spin 
>>> is measured -- and since (as you finally, finally assert) that that state 
>>> can be written as a superposition of UP/DN, all is well -- in the sense 
>>> that we can now be certain that the system is physically and simultaneously 
>>> in the UP and DN states (which I am claiming is a fallacy). *
>>>
>>> *HOWEVER, assuming that I understand your argument after filing the gaps 
>>> in your presentation (and pointing to some unanswered issues), I now must 
>>> "rant" again that the UP/DN superposed representation is NOT unique. Thus, 
>>> since there are finitely many or uncountable many such representations, and 
>>> since (as per LC) QM has no preferred basis, your argument for the physical 
>>> simultaneity of UP and DN states fails. I mean, I could write the 
>>> superposed states in the basis (UP + DN) and (UP - DN), or in many other 
>>> bases. Absent uniqueness of bases, one cannot assert that the system is 
>>> physically and simultaneously in any particular pair of basis vectors.*
>>>
>>> *AG*
>>>
>>
>> *I've been looking over your references to Peres. CMIIAW, but AFAICT he 
>> doesn't deal with the issue I have been "ranting" about; namely, the 
>> non-uniqueness of bases, implying IMO that the concept of simultaneous 
>> physical states of the components of a superposition is an additional, 
>> unsupported assumption of QM which leads to some popular misconceptions of 
>> what QM is telling us. *
>>
>>
>>
>> Then you need to find a new explanation of the interference that occurs 
>> in basically all quantum experiments, like the two slits, the statistics of 
>> results with Stern-Gerlach spin measuring apparatus, etc.
>>
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> *I am not trying to explain the interference. *
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>
> You should. That is the whole problem. How can we get interference if the 
> wave describes only our knowledge state. The reason why we consider the 
> wave physically real is that the wave interfere, even the wave associate to 
> a single particle. 
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>
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> *Rather I am pointing out an unnecessary assumption that leads to 
> paradoxes.*
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>
> ?
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> * See comment below. AG*
>  
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>> The whole point of the physical wave amplitudes is that the diverse 
>> superposed components have a physical role, through destructive or 
>> constructive, or in between, interference.
>>
>
> *The amplitudes give probabilities of occurrence, confirmed by 
> measurements. Nothing more. You forget that the components of the 
> superposition are usually assumed to be orthogonal states, which don't 
> mutually interfere. Thus, you are claiming to explain interference from 
> component states which don't interfere. *
>
>
> That is what we do with any wave, and there is no problem there. It just 
> that cos(pi/2) is zero.
> The problem here is that the amplitude of the wave, when squared, give a 
> probability to find a particle somewhere, but this forced us to make the 
> wave physical, as it will behave differently if there is two slits, one 
> splits, etc. 
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> *Try this; in the case of radioactive decay, can you define the 
> interference between Decayed and Undecayed states? AG*
>
>
> It is not relevant. I prefer ro use superposition of spin, than a temporal 
> phenomenon. 
>

*OK, then use superposition of spin and describe the interference. Note 
that since the Up and Dn are orthogonal, there is no interference. That is, 
generally, when we write a superposition where the components are 
eigenstates, it is assumed the components are mutually orthogonal, hence no 
interference. AG*

>  
>
>> Note that the discussion here supposed the quantum theory, but you are 
>> free of course to propose an alternative. Many have tried without success, 
>> though.
>>
>
> *What I am doing is asking the usual suspects the basis for the assumption 
> that the components of a superposition physically exist simultaneously. So 
> far, IMO, their silence is pregnant. They can't. AG *
>
>
>
> Then explain me what happens in the two slit experiments, when we send the 
> particles “one by one”.
> You need superposition to explain this. It is the base of QM: particles 
> dynamics are described by waves, and those wave do superpose and interfere, 
> even when the particles are alone. 
>

*I don't have to explain everything, and in fact I cannot. All I want to 
know is how can there be interference among components of a superposition, 
when they are mutually orthogonal. AG *

>
> Bruno
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>> Bruno
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>>
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>> *Incidentally, when you earlier referred to a RIGHT/LEFT superposition, 
>> did you mean circular polarization, or right and left directions in a SG 
>> apparatus in relation to Up/Dn measurements? TIA, AG * 
>>
>>>
>>>> This is true in general.  Any state can be written as a superposition 
>>>> of states in some other basis.  But it is not generally true that we can 
>>>> prepare or directly measure a system in any given state.  So those states 
>>>> we can't directly access, we tend to think of them as existing only as 
>>>> superpositions of states we can prepare.
>>>>
>>>> Brent
>>>>
>>>
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