On 7/30/2018 8:34 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
If one denies the existence of the wave function however, it leaves
no room for talking about these intermediate states that are
necessary to explain how the final result of the computation ends up
in the qubits.
And all those qubits exist in the same world since they have to
interfere in order to amplify the probability of the result and
suppress others.
If they interfere it means those qubits exist in the same wave or
multiverse.
In contrast to existing in some other multiverse? one among many
multiverses in the multi-multiverse?
In a sense, the universal wave described all the internal relative
states, and that gives rise to diverging quasi-classical histories.
The word “world” was ambiguous in your phrasing.
It you take QM to be the basic theory then you must explain the
appearance of the classical world, i.e. the one in which we make
observations, record events. As it is supposed to be emergent from the
underlying QM it will be ambiguous. It can only be a statistical
phenomenon. Many events at the atomic and molecular level will be in an
equivalence class constituting the same "world".
Brent
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