> On 11 Jan 2019, at 10:54, [email protected] wrote:
> 
> 
> 
> On Friday, January 11, 2019 at 9:07:50 AM UTC, Bruno Marchal wrote:
> 
>> On 10 Jan 2019, at 22:08, [email protected] <javascript:> wrote:
>> 
>> 
>> 
>> On Thursday, January 10, 2019 at 11:07:51 AM UTC, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>> 
>>> On 9 Jan 2019, at 07:58, [email protected] <> wrote:
>>> 
>>> 
>>> 
>>> On Monday, January 7, 2019 at 11:37:13 PM UTC, [email protected] 
>>> <http://gmail.com/> wrote:
>>> 
>>> 
>>> On Monday, January 7, 2019 at 2:52:27 PM UTC, [email protected] <> wrote:
>>> 
>>> 
>>> On Sunday, January 6, 2019 at 10:45:01 PM UTC, Bruce wrote:
>>> On Mon, Jan 7, 2019 at 9:42 AM <[email protected] <>> wrote:
>>> On Saturday, December 8, 2018 at 2:46:41 PM UTC, [email protected] <> 
>>> wrote:
>>> On Thursday, December 6, 2018 at 5:46:13 PM UTC, [email protected] <> 
>>> wrote:
>>> On Wednesday, December 5, 2018 at 10:13:57 PM UTC, [email protected] <> 
>>> wrote:
>>> On Wednesday, December 5, 2018 at 9:42:51 PM UTC, Bruce wrote:
>>> On Wed, Dec 5, 2018 at 10:52 PM <[email protected] <>> wrote:
>>> On Wednesday, December 5, 2018 at 11:42:06 AM UTC, [email protected] <> 
>>> wrote:
>>> On Tuesday, December 4, 2018 at 9:57:41 PM UTC, Bruce wrote:
>>> On Wed, Dec 5, 2018 at 2:36 AM <[email protected] <>> wrote:
>>> 
>>> Thanks, but I'm looking for a solution within the context of interference 
>>> and coherence, without introducing your theory of consciousness. Mainstream 
>>> thinking today is that decoherence does occur, but this seems to imply 
>>> preexisting coherence, and therefore interference among the component 
>>> states of a superposition. If the superposition is expressed using 
>>> eigenfunctions, which are mutually orthogonal -- implying no mutual 
>>> interference -- how is decoherence possible, insofar as coherence, IIUC, 
>>> doesn't exist using this basis? AG
>>> 
>>> I think you misunderstand the meaning of "coherence" when it is used off an 
>>> expansion in terms of a set of mutually orthogonal eigenvectors. The 
>>> expansion in some eigenvector basis is written as
>>> 
>>>    |psi> = Sum_i (a_i |v_i>)
>>> 
>>> where |v_i> are the eigenvectors, and i ranges over the dimension of the 
>>> Hilbert space. The expansion coefficients are the complex numbers a_i. 
>>> Since these are complex coefficients, they contain inherent phases. It is 
>>> the preservation of these phases of the expansion coefficients that is 
>>> meant by "maintaining coherence". So it is the coherence of the particular 
>>> expansion that is implied, and this has noting to do with the mutual 
>>> orthogonality or otherwise of the basis vectors themselves. In decoherence, 
>>> the phase relationships between the terms in the original expansion are 
>>> lost.
>>> 
>>> Bruce 
>>> 
>>> I appreciate your reply. I was sure you could ascertain my error -- 
>>> confusing orthogonality with interference and coherence. Let me have your 
>>> indulgence on a related issue. AG
>>> 
>>> Suppose the original wf is expressed in terms of p, and its superposition 
>>> expansion is also expressed in eigenfunctions with variable p. Does the 
>>> phase of the original wf carry over into the eigenfunctions as identical 
>>> for each, or can each component in the superposition have different phases? 
>>> I ask this because the probability determined by any complex amplitude is 
>>> independent of its phase. TIA, AG 
>>> 
>>> The phases of the coefficients are independent of each other.
>>> 
>>> When I formally studied QM, no mention was made of calculating the phases 
>>> since, presumably, they don't effect probability calculations. Do you have 
>>> a link which explains how they're calculated? TIA, AG 
>>> 
>>> I found some links on physics.stackexchange.com 
>>> <http://physics.stackexchange.com/> which show that relative phases can 
>>> effect probabilities, but none so far about how to calculate any phase 
>>> angle. AG 
>>> 
>>> Here's the answer if anyone's interested. But what's the question? How are 
>>> wf phase angles calculated? Clearly, if you solve for the eigenfunctions of 
>>> some QM operator such as the p operator, any phase angle is possible; its 
>>> value is completely arbitrary and doesn't effect a probability calculation. 
>>> In fact, IIUC, there is not sufficient information to solve for a unique 
>>> phase. So, I conclude,that the additional information required to uniquely 
>>> determine a phase angle for a wf, lies in boundary conditions. If the 
>>> problem of specifying a wf is defined as a boundary value problem, then, I 
>>> believe, a unique phase angle can be calculated. CMIIAW. AG 
>>> 
>>> Bruce
>>> 
>>> I could use a handshake on this one. Roughly speaking, if one wants to 
>>> express the state of a system as a superposition of eigenstates, how does 
>>> one calculate the phase angles of the amplitudes for each eigenstate? AG
>>> 
>>> One doesn't. The phases are arbitrary unless one interferes the system with 
>>> some other system.
>>> 
>>> Bruce 
>>> 
>>> If the phases are arbitrary and the system interacts with some other 
>>> system, the new phases presumably are also arbitrary. So there doesn't seem 
>>> to be any physical significance, yet this is the heart of decoherence 
>>> theory as I understand it. What am I missing? TIA, AG
>>> 
>>>  Also, as we discussed, the phase angles determine interference. If they 
>>> can be chosen arbitrarily, it seems as if interference has no physical 
>>> significance. AG
>>> 
>>> Puzzling, isn't it? We have waves in Wave Mechanics. Waves interfere with 
>>> each other, even if they're probability waves, and this is one of the core 
>>> features of Wave Mechanics. So phase angles must relate to degrees of 
>>> interference. But if the phase angles are arbitrary; ERGO, so is the 
>>> interference; arbitrary and thus NOT well defined. What am I missing? TIA, 
>>> AG
>> 
>> 
>> The *global* phase angle is arbitrary: Psi = e^phi Psi.
>> 
>> The relative phase angle is not arbitrary: you can distinguish all states up 
>> + e^phi down, when phi varies.
>> 
>> All this follows from the Born rule.
>> 
>> Bruno 
>>  
>> What about the case where the superposition is a sum of many eigenstates?
> 
> That is always the case.
> 
>  ???
>> How do you calculate the phase angle of each eigenstate? I don't see how 
>> Born's rule helps. AG
> By looking at the interference obtained when preparing many particles in that 
> superposition states.
> 
> How can you prepare a system in any superposition state if you don't know the 
> phase angles beforehand?

?

That is the point of the preparation. It is enough to rotate the polariser 
(say) in some special direction.
I can prepare particles in some “up” state, and then I make them passing a 
polariser with a relative angle alpha, so that I can get the state sin(alpha) 
up + cos(alpha) down. I can verify this by measuring the density corresponding 
to the probabilities sin^2(alpha) of being up, and cos^2(alpha) of being down, 
+ some other direction to make the difference with a mixture (as already 
explained once).




> You fail to distinguish measuring or assuming the phase angles from 
> calculating them. One doesn't need Born's rule to calculate them. Maybe what 
> Bruce meant is that you can never calculate them, but you can prepare a 
> system with any relative phase angles. AG

I have no clue what you mean by calculating. I postulate QM, and talk about 
experience done with state which have been prepared, as we can only do that in 
QM.  I think that all what Bruce said about this is correct. We cannot 
distinguish Psi from e^phi Psi, but there is no problem distinguishing up + 
e^phi down from up + down.

Bruno



> 
> You will find more explanation on all this in David Albert’s book, which 
> minimises well the use of mathematics.
> 
> Bruno
> 
> 
> 
> 
> 
>> 
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