On Wednesday, January 30, 2019 at 5:16:05 AM UTC-7, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>
>
> On 30 Jan 2019, at 02:59, [email protected] <javascript:> wrote:
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>
>
> On Tuesday, January 29, 2019 at 4:37:34 AM UTC-7, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>>
>>
>> On 28 Jan 2019, at 22:50, [email protected] wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>> On Friday, January 25, 2019 at 7:33:05 AM UTC-7, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>> On 24 Jan 2019, at 09:29, [email protected] wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> On Sunday, January 20, 2019 at 11:54:43 AM UTC, [email protected] 
>>> wrote:
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On Sunday, January 20, 2019 at 9:56:17 AM UTC, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> On 18 Jan 2019, at 18:50, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> On Friday, January 18, 2019 at 12:09:58 PM UTC, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> On 17 Jan 2019, at 14:48, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> On Thursday, January 17, 2019 at 12:36:07 PM UTC, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> On 17 Jan 2019, at 09:33, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> On Thursday, January 17, 2019 at 3:58:48 AM UTC, Brent wrote:
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> On 1/16/2019 7:25 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> On Monday, January 14, 2019 at 6:12:43 AM UTC, Brent wrote:
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> On 1/13/2019 9:51 PM, [email protected] wrote:
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> This means, to me, that the arbitrary phase angles have absolutely 
>>>>>>>>> no effect on the resultant interference pattern which is observed. 
>>>>>>>>> But 
>>>>>>>>> isn't this what the phase angles are supposed to effect? AG
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> The screen pattern is determined by *relative phase angles for 
>>>>>>>>> the different paths that reach the same point on the screen*.  
>>>>>>>>> The relative angles only depend on different path lengths, so the 
>>>>>>>>> overall 
>>>>>>>>> phase angle is irrelevant.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> Brent
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> *Sure, except there areTWO forms of phase interference in Wave 
>>>>>>>> Mechanics; the one you refer to above, and another discussed in the 
>>>>>>>> Stackexchange links I previously posted. In the latter case, the wf is 
>>>>>>>> expressed as a superposition, say of two states, where we consider two 
>>>>>>>> cases; a multiplicative complex phase shift is included prior to the 
>>>>>>>> sum, 
>>>>>>>> and different complex phase shifts multiplying each component, all of 
>>>>>>>> the 
>>>>>>>> form e^i (theta). Easy to show that interference exists in the latter 
>>>>>>>> case, 
>>>>>>>> but not the former. Now suppose we take the inner product of the wf 
>>>>>>>> with 
>>>>>>>> the ith eigenstate of the superposition, in order to calculate the 
>>>>>>>> probability of measuring the eigenvalue of the ith eigenstate, 
>>>>>>>> applying one 
>>>>>>>> of the postulates of QM, keeping in mind that each eigenstate is 
>>>>>>>> multiplied 
>>>>>>>> by a DIFFERENT complex phase shift.  If we further assume the 
>>>>>>>> eigenstates 
>>>>>>>> are mutually orthogonal, the probability of measuring each eigenvalue 
>>>>>>>> does 
>>>>>>>> NOT depend on the different phase shifts. What happened to the 
>>>>>>>> interference 
>>>>>>>> demonstrated by the Stackexchange links? TIA, AG *
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Your measurement projected it out. It's like measuring which slit 
>>>>>>>> the photon goes through...it eliminates the interference.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Brent
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> *That's what I suspected; that going to an orthogonal basis, I 
>>>>>>> departed from the examples in Stackexchange where an arbitrary 
>>>>>>> superposition is used in the analysis of interference. Nevertheless, 
>>>>>>> isn't 
>>>>>>> it possible to transform from an arbitrary superposition to one using 
>>>>>>> an 
>>>>>>> orthogonal basis? And aren't all bases equivalent from a linear algebra 
>>>>>>> pov? If all bases are equivalent, why would transforming to an 
>>>>>>> orthogonal 
>>>>>>> basis lose interference, whereas a general superposition does not? TIA, 
>>>>>>> AG*
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> I don’t understand this. All the bases we have used all the time are 
>>>>>>> supposed to be orthonormal bases. We suppose that the scalar product 
>>>>>>> (e_i 
>>>>>>> e_j) = delta_i_j, when presenting the Born rule, and the quantum 
>>>>>>> formalism.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Bruno
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> *Generally, bases in a vector space are NOT orthonormal. *
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Right. But we can always build an orthonormal base with a decent 
>>>>>> scalar product, like in Hilbert space, 
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> *For example, in the vector space of vectors in the plane, any pair 
>>>>>> of non-parallel vectors form a basis. Same for any general superposition 
>>>>>> of 
>>>>>> states in QM. HOWEVER, eigenfunctions with distinct eigenvalues ARE 
>>>>>> orthogonal.*
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Absolutely. And when choosing a non degenerate 
>>>>>> observable/measuring-device, we work in the base of its eigenvectors. A 
>>>>>> superposition is better seen as a sum of some eigenvectors of some 
>>>>>> observable. That is the crazy thing in QM. The same particle can be 
>>>>>> superposed in the state of being here and there. Two different positions 
>>>>>> of 
>>>>>> one particle can be superposed.
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> *This is a common misinterpretation. Just because a wf can be 
>>>>> expressed in different ways (as a vector in the plane can be expressed in 
>>>>> uncountably many different bases), doesn't mean a particle can exist in 
>>>>> different positions in space at the same time. AG*
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> It has a non null amplitude of probability of being here and there at 
>>>>> the same time, like having a non null amplitude of probability of going 
>>>>> through each slit in the two slits experience.
>>>>>
>>>>> If not, you can’t explain the inference patterns, especially in the 
>>>>> photon self-interference.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Using a non orthonormal base makes only things more complex. 
>>>>>>
>>>>> *I posted a link to this proof a few months ago. IIRC, it was on its 
>>>>>> specifically named thread. AG*
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> But all this makes my point. A vector by itself cannot be superposed, 
>>>>>> but can be seen as the superposition of two other vectors, and if those 
>>>>>> are 
>>>>>> orthonormal, that gives by the Born rule the probability to obtain the 
>>>>>> "Eigen result” corresponding to the measuring apparatus with Eigen 
>>>>>> vectors 
>>>>>> given by that orthonormal base.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> I’m still not sure about what you would be missing.
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> *You would be missing the interference! Do the math. Calculate the 
>>>>> probability density of a wf expressed as a superposition of orthonormal 
>>>>> eigenstates, where each component state has a different phase angle. All 
>>>>> cross terms cancel out due to orthogonality,*
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> ?  Sin(alpha) up + cos(alpha) down has sin^2(alpha) probability to be 
>>>>> fin up, and cos^2(alpha) probability to be found down, but has 
>>>>> probability 
>>>>> one being found in the Sin(alpha) up + cos(alpha) down state, which would 
>>>>> not be the case with a mixture of sin^2(alpha) proportion of up with 
>>>>> cos^2(alpha) down particles.
>>>>> Si, I don’t see what we would loss the interference terms.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> *and the probability density does not depend on the phase 
>>>>> differences.  What you get seems to be the classical probability density. 
>>>>> AG *
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> I miss something here. I don’t understand your argument. It seems to 
>>>>> contradict basic QM (the Born rule). 
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> *Suppose we want to calculate the probability density of a 
>>>> superposition consisting of orthonormal eigenfunctions, *
>>>>
>>>
>>> Distinct eigenvalue correspond to orthonormal vector, so I tend to 
>>> always superpose only orthonormal functions, related to those eigenvalue. 
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> *each multiplied by some amplitude and some arbitrary phase shift. *
>>>>
>>>
>>> like  (a up + b down), but of course we need a^2 + b^2 = 1. You need to 
>>> be sure that you have normalised the superposition to be able to apply the 
>>> Born rule.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> *If we take the norm squared using Born's Rule, don't all the cross 
>>>> terms zero out due to orthonormality? *
>>>>
>>>
>>> ?
>>>
>>> The Born rule tell you that you will find up with probability a^2, and 
>>> down with probability b^2
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> *Aren't we just left with the SUM OF NORM SQUARES of each component of 
>>>> the superposition? YES or NO?*
>>>>
>>>
>>> If you measure in the base (a up + b down, a up -b down). In that case 
>>> you get the probability 1 for the state above.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> * If YES, the resultant probability density doesn't depend on any of the 
>>>> phase angles. AG*
>>>>
>>>
>>> *YES or NO? AG *
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> Yes, if you measure if the state is a up + b down or a up - b down.
>>> No, if you measure the if the state is just up or down
>>>
>>> Bruno
>>>
>>
>> *I assume orthNORMAL eigenfunctions. I assume the probability densities 
>> sum to unity. Then, using Born's rule, I have shown that multiplying each 
>> component by e^i(theta) where theta is arbitrarily different for each 
>> component, disappears when the probability density is calculated, due to 
>> orthonormality. *
>>
>>
>>
>> That seems to violate elementary quantum mechanics. If e^I(theta) is 
>> different for each components, Born rule have to give different 
>> probabilities for each components---indeed given by the square of 
>> e^I(theta).
>>
>
> *The norm squared of e^i(thetai) is unity, except for the cross terms 
> which is zero due to orthonormality. AG *
>
>>
>> *What you've done, if I understand correctly, is measure the probability 
>> density using different bases, and getting different values. *
>>
>>
>> The value of the relative probabilities do not depend on the choice of 
>> the base used to describe the wave. Only of the base corresponding to what 
>> you decide to measure. 
>>
>>
>>
>> *This cannot be correct since the probability density is an objective 
>> value, and doesn't depend on which basis is chosen. AG*
>>
>>
>> Just do the math. Or read textbook. 
>>
>
> *Why don't YOU do the math ! It's really simple. Just take the norm 
> squared of a superposition of component eigenfunctions, each multiplied by 
> a probability amplitude, and see what you get !  No need to multiply each 
> component by e^i(thetai).  Each amplitude has a phase angle implied. This 
> is Born's rule and the result doesn't depend on phase angles, contracting 
> what Bruce wrote IIUC. If you would just do the simple calculation you will 
> see what I am referring to! AG*
>
>
>
> Bruce is right. Let us do the computation in the simple case where 
> e^i(theta) = -1. (Theta = Pi)
>
> Take the superposition (up - down), conveniently renormalised. If I 
> multiply the whole wave (up - down) by (-1), that changes really nothing. 
> But if I multiply only the second term, I get the orthogonal state up + 
> down, which changes everything. (up +down) is orthogonal to (up - down).
>
> Bruno
>

 *Fuck it. You refuse to do the simple math to show me exactly where I have 
made an error,  IF I have made an error.  You talk a lot about Born's rule 
but I seriously doubt you know how to use  it for simple superposition. AG *

>
>
>
>
>
> The probabilities dos not depend on the choice of the base, but they are 
>> different when the components are different, given that the probabilities 
>> are given by the quake of those components, in the base corresponding to 
>> what you decide to measure, and this in all base used to describe the wave.
>>
>
> *OK, AG* 
>
>>
>> Bruno
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>>> Bruno
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
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