On 4/15/2019 8:08 PM, [email protected] wrote:


On Monday, April 15, 2019 at 8:14:35 PM UTC-6, [email protected] wrote:



    On Friday, April 12, 2019 at 5:48:23 AM UTC-6, [email protected]
    wrote:



        On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at 10:56:08 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:



            On 4/11/2019 9:33 PM, [email protected] wrote:


            On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at 7:12:17 PM UTC-6, Brent
            wrote:



                On 4/11/2019 4:53 PM, [email protected] wrote:


                On Thursday, April 11, 2019 at 4:37:39 PM UTC-6,
                Brent wrote:



                    On 4/11/2019 1:58 PM, [email protected] wrote:



                        He might have been referring to a
                        transformation to a tangent space where
                        the metric tensor is diagonalized and its
                        derivative at that point in spacetime is
                        zero. Does this make any sense?

                        Sort of.



                    Yeah, that's what he's doing. He's assuming a
                    given coordinate system and some arbitrary
                    point in a non-empty spacetime. So spacetime
                    has a non zero curvature and the derivative of
                    the metric tensor is generally non-zero at that
                    arbitrary point, however small we assume the
                    region around that point. But applying the EEP,
                    we can transform to the tangent space at that
                    point to diagonalize the metric tensor and have
                    its derivative as zero at that point. Does THIS
                    make sense? AG

                    Yep.  That's pretty much the defining
                    characteristic of a Riemannian space.

                    Brent


                But isn't it weird that changing labels on spacetime
                points by transforming coordinates has the result of
                putting the test particle in local free fall, when
                it wasn't prior to the transformation? AG

                It doesn't put it in free-fall.  If the particle has
                EM forces on it, it will deviate from the geodesic in
                the tangent space coordinates.  The transformation is
                just adapting the coordinates to the local free-fall
                which removes gravity as a force...but not other forces.

                Brent


            In both cases, with and without non-gravitational forces
            acting on test particle, I assume the trajectory appears
            identical to an external observer, before and after
            coordinate transformation to the tangent plane at some
            point; all that's changed are the labels of spacetime
            points. If this is true, it's still hard to see why
            changing labels can remove the gravitational forces. And
            what does this buy us? AG

            You're looking at it the wrong way around.  There never
            were any gravitational forces, just your choice of
            coordinate system made fictitious forces appear; just like
            when you use a merry-go-round as your reference frame you
            get coriolis forces.


        If gravity is a fictitious force produced by the choice of
        coordinate system, in its absence (due to a change in
        coordinate system) how does GR explain motion? Test particles
        move on geodesics in the absence of non-gravitational forces,
        but why do they move at all? AG


    Maybe GR assumes motion but doesn't explain it. AG


        Another problem is the inconsistency of the fictitious
        gravitational force, and how the other forces function; EM,
        Strong, and Weak, which apparently can't be removed by changes
        in coordinates systems. AG


    It's said that consistency is the hobgoblin of small minds. I am
    merely pointing out the inconsistency of the gravitational force
    with the other forces. Maybe gravity is just different. AG


            What is gets you is it enforces and explains the
            equivalence principle.  And of course Einstein's theory
            also correctly predicted the bending of light,
            gravitational waves, time dilation and the precession of
            the perhelion of Mercury.


        I was referring earlier just to the transformation to the
        tangent space; what specifically does it buy us; why would we
        want to execute this particular transformation? AG


            Brent


*I could be mistaken, I usually am, but ISTM that labeling all points in spacetime as (t, x, y, z) makes no sense since there is no universal clock in GR. Each observer has his own clock in GR. No "Bird's Eye" observer GR. So what could the same t for all spatial points mean, or increasing t's as time evolves? AG*

The "t" in the coordinate point is just a label.  The difference of of t-values at two events is not in general the elapsed time between them.  The elapsed time between them depends on the path taken (twin paradox) and has to be calculated by integrating the metric along the path.  The metric is given as a function of (t,x,y,z).

Brent

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