On Sunday, July 21, 2019 at 1:18:16 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:
>
>
>
> On 7/21/2019 1:09 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
>
> I didn't say there was.  I said *youse-self* sees Moscow and Washington.  
>> "Youse-self" is second person *plural*.
>>
>> Brent
>>
>
> Ok but no need of youse, the question is clear without it, if you accept 
> frequency interpretation of probability as you should also for MWI, it's 
> clear and meaningful.
>
>
> But does it have a clear answer?  
>
> The MWI has it's own problems with probability.  It's straightforward if 
> there are just two possibility and so the world splits into two (and we 
> implicitly assume they are equi-probable).  But what if there are two 
> possibilities and one is twice as likely as the other?  Does the world 
> split into three, two of which are the same?  If two worlds are the same, 
> can they really be two.  Aren't they just one?  And what if there are two 
> possibilities, but one of them is very unlikely, say one-in-a-thousand 
> chance.  Does the world then split into 1001 worlds?  And what if the 
> probability of one event is 1/pi...so then we need infinitely many worlds.  
> But if there are infinitely many worlds then every event happens infinitely 
> many times and there is no natural measure of probability.
>
> Brent
>



Sean Carroll is the multiple-worlds dude. He would have an answer.


http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/blog/2014/06/30/why-the-many-worlds-formulation-of-quantum-mechanics-is-probably-correct/


"The potential for *multiple worlds* is always there in the quantum state, 
whether you like it or not. The next question would be, do multiple-world 
superpositions of the form written [above] ever actually come into being? 
And the answer again is: *yes, automatically*, without any additional 
assumptions."


@philipthrift 

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