> On 22 Jul 2019, at 01:16, 'Brent Meeker' via Everything List 
> <[email protected]> wrote:
> 
> 
> 
> On 7/21/2019 4:06 PM, Philip Thrift wrote:
>> 
>> 
>> On Sunday, July 21, 2019 at 4:39:28 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:
>> 
>> 
>> On 7/21/2019 12:30 PM, Philip Thrift wrote:
>>> 
>>> 
>>> On Sunday, July 21, 2019 at 1:18:16 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:
>>> 
>>> 
>>> On 7/21/2019 1:09 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
>>>> I didn't say there was.  I said youse-self sees Moscow and Washington.  
>>>> "Youse-self" is second person plural.
>>>> 
>>>> Brent
>>>> 
>>>> Ok but no need of youse, the question is clear without it, if you accept 
>>>> frequency interpretation of probability as you should also for MWI, it's 
>>>> clear and meaningful.
>>> 
>>> But does it have a clear answer?  
>>> 
>>> The MWI has it's own problems with probability.  It's straightforward if 
>>> there are just two possibility and so the world splits into two (and we 
>>> implicitly assume they are equi-probable).  But what if there are two 
>>> possibilities and one is twice as likely as the other?  Does the world 
>>> split into three, two of which are the same?  If two worlds are the same, 
>>> can they really be two.  Aren't they just one?  And what if there are two 
>>> possibilities, but one of them is very unlikely, say one-in-a-thousand 
>>> chance.  Does the world then split into 1001 worlds?  And what if the 
>>> probability of one event is 1/pi...so then we need infinitely many worlds.  
>>> But if there are infinitely many worlds then every event happens infinitely 
>>> many times and there is no natural measure of probability.
>>> 
>>> Brent
>>> 
>>> 
>>> 
>>> Sean Carroll is the multiple-worlds dude. He would have an answer.
>>> 
>>> 
>>> http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/blog/2014/06/30/why-the-many-worlds-formulation-of-quantum-mechanics-is-probably-correct/
>>>  
>>> <http://www.preposterousuniverse.com/blog/2014/06/30/why-the-many-worlds-formulation-of-quantum-mechanics-is-probably-correct/>
>>> 
>>> 
>>> "The potential for multiple worlds is always there in the quantum state, 
>>> whether you like it or not. The next question would be, do multiple-world 
>>> superpositions of the form written [above] ever actually come into being? 
>>> And the answer again is: yes, automatically, without any additional 
>>> assumptions."
>> 
>> But then the question is how many worlds (the 1/pi problem) and how does 
>> probability come into it?  Do we have to just assign probabilities to 
>> branches (using the Born rule as an axiom instead of deriving it)?  And what 
>> about continuous processes like detecting the decay in Schroedinger's cat 
>> box?  Is a continuum of worlds produced corresponding to the different times 
>> the decay might occur?
>> 
>> Brent
>> 
>> 
>> Tegmark could be on the mark by taking the position that infinities of all 
>> types should be removed from physics.
>> 
>> So there would be no "continuum of worlds".  The way I think about it 
>> (without getting into the formality of computable analysis) is to just think 
>> of the worlds being generated as in a quantum Monte Carlo program: There 
>> will be lots of worlds randomly made, but not an actual infinity of them.
> 
> That would just be equivalent to weighting them with the Born Rule.  If 
> you're going to have worlds generated per a MC program with weightings 
> (probabilities) then why not just have world generated per the Born MC 
> program.

Only if is deduced from the sigma_1-measure problem, or Mechanism has to be 
andonned.

Bruno


> 
> Brent
> 
>> 
>> 
>> (God plays Monte Carlo.)
>> 
>> @philipthrift
>> 
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