> On 29 Jul 2019, at 13:06, Lawrence Crowell <[email protected]> 
> wrote:
> 
> On Monday, July 29, 2019 at 5:34:39 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:
> 
>> On 28 Jul 2019, at 23:42, Lawrence Crowell <[email protected] 
>> <javascript:>> wrote:
>> 
>> 
>> 
>> On Sunday, July 28, 2019 at 5:09:56 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>> 
>>> On 27 Jul 2019, at 20:42, Lawrence Crowell <[email protected] <>> 
>>> wrote:
>>> 
>>> On Saturday, July 27, 2019 at 8:38:12 AM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:
>>> All that assumes that infinity exists for any meaningful use of the word 
>>> “exists” and as far as I know nobody has ever found a infinite number of 
>>> anything. Mathematics can write stories about the infinite in the language 
>>> of mathematics but are they fiction or nonfiction?
>>> 
>>> John k Clark
>>> 
>>> 
>>> Infinity is not a number in the usual sense, but more a cardinality of a 
>>> set. Infinity has been a source of trouble for some. I work with Hilbert 
>>> spaces that have a form of construction that is finite, but where the 
>>> finite upper limit is not bounded ---- it can always be increased. This is 
>>> because of entropy bounds, such as the Bekenstein bound for black holes and 
>>> Bousso bounds on AdS, that demands a finite state space for local physics. 
>>> George Cantor made some set theoretic sense out of infinities, even a 
>>> hierarchy of them. This avoids some difficulties. However, I think that 
>>> mathematics in general is not as rich if you work exclusively in finitude. 
>>> Fraenkel-Zermelo set theory even has an axiom of infinity. The main point 
>>> is with axiomatic completeness, and mathematics with infinity is more 
>>> complete. 
>> 
>> Mechanism provides an ontological finitism (what exists are only 0, s(0), 
>> s(s(0)), …), but it explains why those finite objects will believe correctly 
>> in some phenomenological infinite (already needed to get an idea of what 
>> “finite” could mean.
>> The infinite is phenomenologically real, but has no ontology.
>> 
>> No first order logical theories can really define the difference between 
>> finite and infinite. Even ZF, despite its axiom of infinity is not able to 
>> do that, in the sense that it too has non standard model, in which we can 
>> have a finite number greater than all the “standard” natural numbers 0, s(0) 
>> …
>> 
>> I am not sure why you say that adding an axiom of infinity makes a theory 
>> more complete. There are sense it which it only aggravate incompleteness. 
>> 
>> Once a theory is rich enough to define and prove the existence of a 
>> universal machine, that theory becomes essentially undecidable (which means 
>> that not only it is undecidable, but it is un-completable: all the effective 
>> consistent extensions are undecidable.
>> 
>> Bruno
>> 
>> 
>> I am not a set theory maven particularly. I only know the basic things and 
>> some aspects of advanced topics I have read. The recursive function is to 
>> take 0 and "compute" s(0) and then ss(0) and so forth. The entire set is 
>> recursively enumerable and the idea that given 0 and computing s(0) one has 
>> ss^n(0) = s^{n+1}(0) is induction. That this leads to a countably infinite 
>> set is recursively enumerable and that is not something one can "machine 
>> compute." I think this is this "extension.”
> 
> 
> The set N = {0, 1, 2, …} is trivially recursively enumerable (can be 
> generated by a digital machine/program). It is the range of the identity 
> function. 
> 
> Once a function is computable, or once a set can be computably generated, we 
> usually say that the function (an infinite object) is (partially) computable, 
> or that the set is (semi)-computable. A function can be said to compute its 
> extension.
> 
> A function is NOT computable when there is no algorithm capable of giving 
> output on some input where it is defined.
> 
> I have shown that the function deciding if a code compute a total or a 
> strictly partial function is (highly) not computable, although well defined 
> if we accept the excluded principle (as we do in classical (non intuitionist) 
> computer science, and as we have to do when we do theology, given that a 
> theology is a highly non constructive notion (provably so for the theology of 
> a machine (by definition: the study of the true propositions (and subset of 
> true propositions) on the machine, provable or not by that machine).
> 
> Bruno
> 
> Numbers are computable, but the entire set Z of integers is not.

?

All numbers in N, Q, and Z are computable. For the real numbers, it is 
different and more subtle, but usually we represent the (computable) real 
number by total computable functions from N to N.

N, Z, and Q are equivalent with respect of computability theory. They are all 
equivalent to V_w (V_omega), the set of rank smaller than w (omega, the least 
infinite ordinal), which is the theory of finite sets.




> The conscious being or human makes the inductive leap from the successors of 
> 0 that the set of integers is an infinite set.

They do that in set theory, not in arithmetic, except at the meta-level in case 
work on arithmetic (as opposed to work in arithmetic).

(Z, +, *)  and (Q, +, *) are representable in (N, +, *) , like the 
SK-combinators, and all universal machineries,  are representable in (N, +, *).

Bruno


> 
> LC 
> 
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