On 8/2/2019 12:53 PM, Jason Resch wrote:


On Fri, Aug 2, 2019 at 1:25 PM 'Brent Meeker' via Everything List <[email protected] <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:



    On 8/2/2019 10:42 AM, Jason Resch wrote:

                Quantum computers work by interference of quits, and
                such interference can only take place in one world --
                different worlds are orthogonal. The fact that one
                can analyse a quantum computer in a particular basis
                which can be represented as a series of parallel
                computations does not mean that this is actually what
                happens. Heuristic constructs seldom correspond to
                reality.


            None of this comes anywhere close to addressing my question.


        Well, you have either not understood the question, or my
        answer to it.


    I asked where those 10^1000 intermediate computation states are
    realized, and your reply was a basic description of how quantum
    computers use qubits and interference.  You said this all takes
    place in one world, but the total information content and
    computational capacity of the observable universe about 800
    orders of magnitude less than 10^1000.

    You then added a sentence that suggested the intermediate
    computational states perhaps don't exist, but then how does the
    correct answer get into the output bits when we read it?

    David Deutsch said he has never seen a sensible answer to the
    question of how quantum computers work from the context of any
    single-universe interpretation.  Do you think your answer would
    satisfy him?

    All those "intermediate computation states" are so "numerous"
    because the state is being expressed as a superposition of qubit
    basis states.  From another viewpoint the state is just a single
    ray in Hilbert space that happens to not be orthogonal to any of
    those bases


So in your view, are they real?

What "they"?  There's only a single state.  It's like saying there are infinitely many tones in a square wave...just because you represented it as a Fourier series.  The are 2^1e4 potential measurement results, depending on what you choose to measure...but that's true in the classical case too.

Brent


Jason
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