On Sun, Oct 6, 2019 at 7:23 PM Bruno Marchal <[email protected]> wrote:

> When Alice and Bob are separated, and measure their particles state, the
> MWI only ask that whatever they found will be correlated. In the world
> where Alice finds “up", Bob will find "down", and in the world where Alice
> finds “down”Bob will find “up”. But without any FTL action at a distance.
>
>
OK. So what is the explanation for this aspect of MWI? I am asking for a
local causal physical explanation for the observed facts. Nothing else will
suffice at this point.


Aspect took a long amount of work to ensure that light has not the time to
> bring the correlation, and as the choice of “Alice”’s direction of spin
> measurement is arbitrary, unless you bring t’Hooft super determinism, the
> influence has to be FTL. Not so in the MWI.
>

The influence is non-local, that does not imply FTL. If there is no
non-local influence in MWI, how is the observed correlation formed? Just
answer the question.


Well, I have looked at  your "explanations", and at a lot of other MWI
> so-called explanations, and not one of them has been satisfactory. These
> "explanations" are either hopelessly vague, or they misunderstand what is
> required, or, like Wallace, they simply wimp out of any explanation at all.
> If you can do better, then do it. But despite years of asking, you still
> have not come up with any credible explanation.
>
>
> It is the same as the one in Price FAQ, or in  Tipler’s paper, and it is
> coherent with Deutsch-Hayden one, if recatsed in a many histories approach.
>

And I have, on many occasions, shown that these approaches are not
successful in eliminating the non-locality. Price and Tipler, indeed, just
reproduce the standard non-local quantum account. If you are so convinced
that these papers give a fully local explanation for the violation of the
Bell inequalities, then reproduce the argument here so that we can agree on
what, exactly, we are talking about.

Bruce

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