On 10/6/2019 4:33 AM, Philip Thrift wrote:


On Sunday, October 6, 2019 at 6:03:29 AM UTC-5, Bruce wrote:

    On Sun, Oct 6, 2019 at 7:23 PM Bruno Marchal <[email protected]
    <javascript:>> wrote:

        When Alice and Bob are separated, and measure their particles
        state, the MWI only ask that whatever they found will be
        correlated. In the world where Alice finds “up", Bob will
        find "down", and in the world where Alice finds “down”Bob
        will find “up”. But without any FTL action at a distance.


    OK. So what is the explanation for this aspect of MWI? I am asking
    for a local causal physical explanation for the observed facts.
    Nothing else will suffice at this point.


        Aspect took a long amount of work to ensure that light has not
        the time to bring the correlation, and as the choice of
        “Alice”’s direction of spin measurement is arbitrary, unless
        you bring t’Hooft super determinism, the influence has to be
        FTL. Not so in the MWI.


    The influence is non-local, that does not imply FTL. If there is
    no non-local influence in MWI, how is the observed correlation
    formed? Just answer the question.


        Well, I have looked at  your "explanations", and at a lot of
        other MWI so-called explanations, and not one of them has
        been satisfactory. These "explanations" are either hopelessly
        vague, or they misunderstand what is required, or, like
        Wallace, they simply wimp out of any explanation at all. If
        you can do better, then do it. But despite years of asking,
        you still have not come up with any credible explanation.

        It is the same as the one in Price FAQ, or in  Tipler’s paper,
        and it is coherent with Deutsch-Hayden one, if recatsed in a
        many histories approach.


    And I have, on many occasions, shown that these approaches are not
    successful in eliminating the non-locality. Price and Tipler,
    indeed, just reproduce the standard non-local quantum account. If
    you are so convinced that these papers give a fully local
    explanation for the violation of the Bell inequalities, then
    reproduce the argument here so that we can agree on what, exactly,
    we are talking about.

    Bruce




EPR and Many Worlds has been "worked out" many rimes before, but hasn't really changed the world.

http://settheory.net/many-worlds

The idea is to dismiss the reality of the collapse, consider that the deterministic evolution without collapse is all what happens, and admit a persisting coexistence of all possibilities in parallel worlds, in each of which things would only "look as if" the collapse happened.

*The Many-worlds interpretation of the EPR paradox*

Imagine a pair of entangled particles, that will be simultaneously measured, each in a specific way, by Alice and Bob, such that for each, the probability is 1/2 to find heads or tails, but globally there is only 10% probability that they get the same result.

So, Alice seeing her measurement result evolves into a superposition (or split) between 2 mental states : Alice-head and Alice-tail, with the same weight of 1/2 each.

In the same way, Bob evolves into a superposition (or splits) into 2 copies : Bob-head and Bob-tail, each with weight 1/2.

"Evolves into" is just MWI-speak for wf collapse into separate worlds.  This doesn't solve the problem of why Alice and Bob's worlds are correlated.

Then, Alice and Bob meet again.

Alice-head sees Bob in a superposition of states, composed of 10% of Bob-head and 90% of Bob-tail, Alice-tail sees Bob in its remaining states, that is a combination of 90% of Bob-head with 10% of Bob-tail. Bob-head sees Alice as in a superposition of states, composed of 10% of Alice-head and 90% of Alice-tail Bob-tail sees Alice in a combination of 90% of Alice-head with 10% of Alice-tail.

But that's the problem.  How do they come to have these combinations instead of 50/50.  If you suppose it's something about the wf, then it's non-local because the wf is non-local.  If you suppose it's something that happens because of the interaction between the "worlds" then that something was determined non-locally in the setup using correlated particles.

Brent


Then, Alice tells Bob her measurement result.
For her this changes essentially nothing :
When Alice-head says "head" she sees Bob as deterministically evolving from the mixture (10% of Bob-head + 90% of Bob-tail), into the mixture (10% of Bob-head-head + 90% of Bob-tail-head) ; and similarly for Alice-tail who says "Tail".

But bob's experience here is a bit different :
Bob-head sees Alice's state collapsing from the undetermined state of (10% Alice-head + 90% Alice-tail), into either Alice-head (with 10% probability) or Alice-tail (with 90% probability); this splits himself between Bob-head-head and Bob-head-tail with these probabilities. Meanwhile, Bob-tail sees Alice's state collapsing from the undetermined state of (90% Alice-head + 10% Alice-tail) as he saw her, into either Alice-head (with 90% probability) or Alice-tail (with 10% probability).



and

*Many Worlds Model resolving the Einstein Podolsky Rosen*
*paradox via a Direct Realism to Modal Realism Transition that*
*preserves Einstein Locality *
https://arxiv.org/pdf/1108.1674.pdf


And the "reverse" of many worlds (sum-over-histories):

https://www.perimeterinstitute.ca/personal/rsorkin/some.papers/63.eprb.pdf

@philipthrift
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