On Monday, September 16, 2024 at 9:12:58 PM UTC-6 John Clark wrote:

On Mon, Sep 16, 2024 at 9:36 PM Alan Grayson <[email protected]> wrote:

> How would you map (0,1) 1-1 onto the real numbers?


*F(x)=1/2 + 1/π Arctan(x) . The domain is all the real numbers and the 
range is (0.1)*


*This map isn't 1-1. Many x's correspond to the same point in (0,1). AG *


*> **Both sets have the same cardinality.*


* And a short line in a long line have the same cardinality, and there is a 
very simple geometric proof showing that they can be put into a one to one 
correspondence.  Just draw a triangle with a line from the apex running 
through the short line to the long line at the base of the triangle *

*> If a set is infinitely large then there is a proper subset of that set 
that can be put into a one to one correspondence with the entire set, in 
fact that is the mathematical definition of "infinity".*


*> That's circular. AG *


*I deleted the post with the circular comment. Why are you responding to 
it? AG *

*Alan, if you open any book on set theory you will find that the formal 
mathematical definition of infinity is that something is infinite if and 
only if a proper subset of it can be put into a one to one correspondence 
with the entire thing. *


*Returning to the focus of this thread is my claim that an infinite 
universe cannot be created. If one exists, it is eternal. The reason is 
because the creation would require something non-physical; infinite spatial 
expansion instantaneously. So no BB for a spatially infinite universe. The 
situation for a finite universe is different. It can start small and 
expand, notwithstanding the fact that we don't know how any universe can be 
created. AG *


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