On Tuesday, September 17, 2024 at 6:48:19 AM UTC-6 Alan Grayson wrote:

On Tuesday, September 17, 2024 at 4:57:12 AM UTC-6 John Clark wrote:

On Mon, Sep 16, 2024 at 11:46 PM Alan Grayson <[email protected]> wrote:

> How would you map (0,1) 1-1 onto the real numbers?


*F(x)=1/2 + 1/π Arctan(x) . The domain is all the real numbers and the 
range is (0.1)*


*> This map isn't 1-1. Many x's correspond to the same point in (0,1). AG *


*This is a graph of the Arctan function. Show me many X's, or even one 
X, that corresponds to the same point in y.*


*I'll get back to you on this. I was thinking, as x increases positively or 
negatively, the y values (angles) repeat multiple times, making the 
function many-to-one. In this case, we're mapping all the real numbers, to 
a subset of the y-axis. Am I mistaken? AG *


*Arctan(1) = the angle whose tangent = 1. Isn't this angle 90 deg or pi/2?  
So your plot seems wrong, but it's what is on the Internet. AG *


[image: image.png]


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