--- In [email protected], new.morning <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 
wrote:
>
> --- In [email protected], "authfriend" <jstein@> wrote:
<snip>
> > Remember, what the guy is defending against is
> > the accusation by the critic that the 36-hour spike
> > in the murder rate meant the whole study was a 
> > complete failure.  What he's doing is explaining
> > why it didn't mean that at all.
> > 
> > On the other hand, the numbers involved wouldn't be
> > enough to significantly affect the results even if
> > the murder spike *had* been included.
> 
> But, IMO, each crime type should have been analyzed separated.

Yes, I understand your objection on those grounds.
But it doesn't address my point about the way the
study *was* done.

<snip>
> And the impact, other than in 1-2 weeks, looks pretty modest. And
> the fact that there was a big drop in cime in 1-2 weeeks and not 
> others is unexplained

Wasn't their explanation that this was when the
largest number were participating? I thought that
was mentioned in the rebuttal.

> -- and adds the premise of a highly fluctuating "sea" of
> crime rates.

Well, but murder was the *only* rate that fluctuated
in a way inconsistent with the study hypothesis.

<snip>
> > What about the fact that there is normally such a
> > small number of murders (only 3 percent of violent
> > crime in 1993 as a whole)?  Is it not the case that,
> > as he says, "with numbers as low as this...random
> > fluctuations can appear extremely high when listed
> > as percentages"?
> 
> His point is valid, but off the main point, IMO. If you average 10
> murders a week, and you get 20 in a particualr week, its not an
> aberation to say murders doubled in that week.

No, and he certainly doesn't deny that murders
doubled in that week (the additional ones coming
in a 36-hour period).  All he was doing in the part
of the rebuttal I quoted was pointing out why that
spike didn't invalidate the rest of the study.

> Where his point would have relevance is in murders in a small town
> like FF. If there is one every five years, and you get one this
> year, the percentage increase for the year is 500% (if you used the 
> average of 1/5th). Or god forbid, two in one year: 1000% That is a 
> distorted view, IMO.

I don't see why the point doesn't also have
relevance for the murder spike in the D.C. study,
if to a less extreme degree.

> > In any case, I'm not sure in what way your second
> > objection relates to the point he was trying to
> > make, i.e., that the spike doesn't affect the
> > study's conclusions. 
> 
> I was commenting on the 3-4 paragraphs you provided, and asked for
> comment on, not just that one point. If I got "off point", sorry. 
> But I don't see where.

That was the only point he was making in what
I quoted!

<snip>
> > >By averaging, with assaults being by far the highest
> > > category, the study becomes essentially a study on assaults.
> > > Effects on murders and to a lesser degree, rapes, are
> > > submerged.
> > 
> > This makes sense to me as a criticism of the
> > study design.  Why they chose to lump all violent
> > crime together isn't entirely clear, but I can't
> > imagine they did this because they *expected* the
> > murder rate to spike and *wanted* to submerge it.
> 
> I am not sure pooling was part of the pre-study study design. There
> can be a lot of leeway if reporting results. I suspect they pooled
> results because it gave a clearer less ambigous picture.

No, they were following the pre-study design as
closely as they could; the protocol specified
the total number of all violent crimes and said
nothing about studying each type separately.
Pooling was what they explicitly said they were
going to do.

I have a copy of the original protocol, but 
all my TM-related papers are in storage where I
can't get at them easily.

The fact that they drew up, in consultation with
an independent review board, a protocol before
the study commenced, and publicized it widely,
was a big deal; this was designed specifically
to address the kind of drawing-the-target-around
the-arrow questions you're raising.

> I don't think they felt bound by any pre-study articulation of thier
> analysis plan.

They very much *did* feel bound by it, actually.

> And it would have been silly to state "we are not going
> to look at each crime by itself."
> 
> > I suspect they did it because it wouldn't sound as
> > impressive, PR-wise, to claim a decline merely in
> > assaults, as opposed to a decline in all violent
> > crime; 
> 
> And that murders and/or rapes went up.

Sure.  But my point is, they *expected* them all
to go down.

<snip> 
> > Anyway, I'm *still* not clear why you think his
> > explanation for why the spike didn't invalidate
> > the study, as the critic claimed, lessens his
> > credibility,
> 
> I raised three points in the above post, and several more in a prior
> post, that I thought were weak. Regardless of why they were being
> raised. 

None of your points, as far as I can tell, addressed
your stated distrust of his credibility specifically
on the basis of his explanation for why the spike
didn't invalidate the study.  That's the only thing
I was asking about, not flaws in the study design per
se, although your ideas on those have been interesting.


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