On 3 Feb 2006 at 14:41, Arkady wrote: > Dear Finale List, > > Can anyone point me to a good explanation on this topic, preferably > with a few web links: > > Si Do vs Ti Do? > > I grew up with Si, and never heard of Ti unTil:) I got to NYC from > Ukraine. Ever since, I never "accepted" Ti, but it seems like Julie > Andrews has won:)... > > But, jokes aside, am I to assume that there was no Ti in this world, > unTil:) they needed a rhyme in The Sound of Music?!
As far as I know, that's not the reason for it. > And, if Ti existed before The Sound of Music, how and why was it > invented? If you use movable Do solfege with chromatic alterations, where Fa# is Fi, then Sol# would be Si, and thus there's a single syllable being used for both #5 and the leading tone. Thus, the leading tone is rendered as Ti instead of the French/European Si. My experience is that those who don't use chromatic alterations to the syllables are either using fixed Do, and/or are trained in a European tradition, and those who use them are more likely to be American-trained. So, I do see "Ti" as an Americanism. And the above was the explanation I was given at Oberlin during my first semester of ear training/sight singing, and it was the way sight singing was taught at Oberlin at that time (movable Do with Ti). -- David W. Fenton http://dfenton.com David Fenton Associates http://dfenton.com/DFA/ _______________________________________________ Finale mailing list [email protected] http://lists.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale
