I have a customer that is trying to send to someone that has an invalid, or at least malformed, mx record. However even thought the MX record was entered as an IP address - which I unerstand is incorrect - the only folks complaining about not being able to send to this person are the folks that are on my Imail Server. I can send to this guy from my Exchange server find. Is this just an issue of some servers being able to read this record and other not??? Thanks for your input.
It isn't RFC-compliant.
It's kind of like sending a "snail mail" letter with a phone number instead of an address on it. Yes, you and I know what it means -- but that doesn't mean that it will get delivered. Sure, a small town post office may see that it is a local phone number that belongs to Mrs. Smith, and deliver it to her -- but that doesn't mean that it is OK to send mail that way.
02/12/04 14:09:25 dig bruntassociates.com @ ns15a.boca15-verio.com
Or, http://www.dnsreport.com/tools/mail.ch?domain=bruntassociates.com , which shows that the MX record is bogus. I don't recall offhand, though, how a mailserver should respond in a case like this, where the MX record has a hostname that is bogus and another that is valid. This is the first time I've seen such a case (although I've seen a lot of cases with a single bogus hostname).
-Scott
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