On 2011/12/19 09:12, cr brassfield wrote: > The term 'christening' refers generally to child baptims in the > Anglican/Episcopalian and Catholic churches in U.K. . So any old records > would > show that most ancestors would carry that term if they were from those > denominations or U.K origin. > Later records for individuals might show 'confirmation' dates. This would be > roughly equivalent to 'baptism' in non-conformist denominations.
Why then, do English PR records almost exclusively use the term 'baptised' or 'baptizat' in pre-17th century records? -- Regards, Mike Fry Johannesburg Legacy User Group guidelines: http://www.LegacyFamilyTree.com/Etiquette.asp Archived messages after Nov. 21 2009: http://www.mail-archive.com/[email protected]/ Archived messages from old mail server - before Nov. 21 2009: http://www.mail-archive.com/[email protected]/ Online technical support: http://www.LegacyFamilyTree.com/Help.asp Follow Legacy on Facebook (http://www.facebook.com/LegacyFamilyTree) and on our blog (http://news.LegacyFamilyTree.com). To unsubscribe: http://www.LegacyFamilyTree.com/LegacyLists.asp
