From: Paul <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> > Your question was, "How, in a Libertarian Society, is it not an > initiation of force to mandate a seller to charge, and a buyer to pay, > to the goverment, a Tax on the sale of those goods?" > > First, there is no initiation of force to mandate a buyer to pay a tax > on the sale of goods. They can avoid paying the tax by not purchasing > those particular goods. Nobody is forcing them to buy the goods. The > seller could also choose to take lower profit margins and not pass the > tax onto his customers. > > The legitimate role of government includes protecting people and > businesses from fraud, theft, coercion, etc. in the markets. This > protection comes at a price. That price can be a sales tax by the > particular state.
The Mafia calls this protection and extortion. > If you want to know where states get this legitimate power to make > such a tax and compell a seller to charge it, let's say you have a > group of people without a government who agree to avoid being overrun > by gangs, they will protect each other and will use force to defend > each other. They decide who will or won't sell goods within their > community. As individuals who own the property of the village, they > have the legitimate right to make these laws. They also have the > right to charge for this privilege through taxes. If a seller wants > to sell goods inside their combined property, they may or may not > refuse to allow it. They may allow it under the condition that they > add a small charge to each transaction to offset the cost of the > protection they get from the locals. Merely owning property does not > allow you to sell it anywhere you want. It would be a foolish claim. > No such a claim would be a Libertarian claim. > So a seller is also not being FORCED or coerced into collecting a > sales tax on the transactions. He willingly agrees to do such as a > condition of his being allowed to sell his products on their property. A conditional right to property? > If he refuses, he may refused permission to sell his goods, which is > a legitimate right of those banding together to exercise. So then things are right to do if enough people say it is. What if a large enough group of people similarly say that 2+2=5. > So, I've proven that in both cases, neither the buyer nor the seller > has had force initiated against them. No, you have used a series of logical fallacies to say what you want to say. BWS ForumWebSiteAt http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Libertarian Yahoo! Groups Links <*> To visit your group on the web, go to: http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Libertarian/ <*> To unsubscribe from this group, send an email to: [EMAIL PROTECTED] <*> Your use of Yahoo! Groups is subject to: http://docs.yahoo.com/info/terms/
