Telemann uses sequential development all the time
http://www.vimeo.com/706605

French music uses sequential development as well, though it is used 
differently than Vivaldi.

dt




At 01:20 PM 6/19/2008, you wrote:
>Telemann's eschewing of sequential development was alone sufficient 
>for him to claim to be an adherent of the French style.
>Needless to say- aside from this there was nothing French in 
>Telemann's thoroughly Germanic musical character. But this would 
>indicate how much of a determinant that aspect was to an 18th 
>century set of ears.
>RT
>----- Original Message ----- From: "Roman Turovsky" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>To: <[email protected]>; "David Rastall" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>Sent: Thursday, June 19, 2008 3:44 PM
>Subject: Re: [LUTE] French Style
>
>
>>I would say- mainly the absense of sequential development.
>>RT
>>
>>From: "David Rastall" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>>>I'm wondering:  what is it that makes up the "French style" 
>>>of  Baroque music?  I don't mean particularly stile brise, notes 
>>>inegall  etc.  Those are obvious, and to me insufficient 
>>>explanations to  convey the French Baroque.  It seems to me 
>>>there's more to it than  that.  David Rastall
>
>
>
>
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