Matt, Ron, Bo and all MOQers:

Ron quoted Pirsig:
"Any philosophic explanation of quality is going to be both false and true 
precisely because it is a philosophic explanation. The process of philosophic 
explanation is an analytic process, a process of breaking something down into 
words, into subjects and predicates. What I mean (and everybody else means) by 
the word quality cannot be broken down into subjects and predicates. This is 
not because quality is so mysterious but because quality is so simple, 
immediate and direct."

Ron said to Bo:
This is what's confusing the shit outta me...the 
pre-conceptual/pre-intellectual distinction... I think I need some help in 
understanding.

dmb says:
I can't help explain Bo's distinction (As I understand it, the terms are 
interchangable) but David Hildebrand's paper "The Linguistic Turn" contains a 
great explanation of the problem Pirsig presents in the quote above. I learned 
that Douglas Browning calls it "the phenomenological paradox". The paper quotes 
Browning. Here he is talking about Dewey's "pre-reflective experiences" but it 
could just as well be James's pure experience, Mead's primordial prereflective 
experience or Pirsig's quality....

"How can [Dewey] adequately describe our immediately lived, pre-reflective 
experiences without assuming a stance for surveying them which, being 
reflective and retrospective, cannot help but disclose them, not as they were 
experienced in the imtimacy of our living through them, but as 'objects' which 
we are viewing externally."

In other words, how can you verbalize the pre-verbal without being verbal about 
it? Hildebrand puts it like this (the emphsis is his)...

"Being itself a reflective (linguistic) act, description must color any 
pre-reflective subject matter it describes; since philosophy - pragmatism 
included - comments ONLY by means of reflective symbols it CANNOT illuminate 
this level of experience (if it can even be shown to exist). ...This accusation 
strikes at the core of Dewey's pragmatism and may be the most important issue 
to clarify and defend."

Hildebrand even quotes Dewey acknowledging this predicament. The 
"incommunicability of the non-linguistic", as Dewey says,...

"is inherent, according to genuine empiricism, in the derived relastionship of 
discourse to primary experience. Any one who refuses to go outside the universe 
of discourse ...has of course shut himself off from understanding what a 
'situation', as directly experienced subject matter, is."

I should point out that this is the central point of contention in the dispute 
between Matt and me. As Hildebrand and Rosenthal paint it, this is also central 
to the distinction between classical pragmatism and neopragmatists like Rorty 
in particular and linguistically inclined postmodernists in general. I mean, 
radical empiricism doesn't entail a rejection of the idea that language 
powerfully shapes our world but its emphasis on experience won't allow that 
fact to trump everything else, so to speak. As we see here, Pirsig, Hildebrand 
and Dewey acknowledge the problem but its not enough to stop them from 
including the pre-intellectual in their intellectual descriptions. In doing 
this they are also acknowledging that reality is too big, rich and fluid to be 
stuffed into little conceptual boxes and that seems right as rain to me.

Thanks,
dmb


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