[Micah]:
We have evidence of A - the universe exists.
We have absolutely no evidence of B - [nothingness] exists.
From a conceptual viewpoint, you must first determine what it is that
"exists". Is it the universe or the "appearance" of a universe? For
example, I define existence as that which appears to occur in time and
occupy space.
Since the "evidence" of a universe is experience, we may not know that a
universe exists but only that experience exists. But are we willing to say
that experience exists?
You would be right if the question were whether we had
better evidence for
a.1) the universe existing or
b,1) nothingness existing.
But the question is whether we have better evidence for
a.2) the universe having ALWAYS existed or
b.2) nothingness having ever existed.
We have no better evidence for a.2) than for b.2).
[Nothingness existing] is self-contradictory by definition. "Always" and
"never" impute a time continuum to the universe, whereas time is the mode of
experience.
[dmb]:
[Basically there are only 2 choices: a) the universe always existed
or b) it came into existence from nothing] strikes me as a theological
construction. I mean, why couldn't the universe come into existence
from something rather than nothing?
It had to, of course. Even the Big Bangers concede that it was the result
of energy fluctuations, which ain't nothing.
Why couldn't the universe come into existence from something other
than the universe? Now that's a "theological construction".
Indeed! That's also a "metaphysical construction". In fact, it happens to
be the creation hypothesis I constructed for Essence. But, then, if a
theological construction is repugnant to you, I suppose a metaphysical
hypothesis is equally repugnant. At least it seemed to be for Robert
Pirsig.
I still don't know what all this has to do with Chance. Maybe we should
retitle this thread "Much ado about Nothing".
Thanks folks,
Ham
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