Dave,
Nice post, and it answers my questions in regard to what
is meant when one refers to relativism in regard to Pragmatism
and why it does not agree with Pirsigs point of view.
Thank you for the explaination and its nice to have
your input and posts to read again.
-Ron

 


----- Original Message ----
From: david buchanan <[email protected]>
To: [email protected]
Sent: Sun, February 7, 2010 1:05:39 PM
Subject: Re: [MD] Intellect's Symposium


Marsha said: ...
Is cognitive relativism defined as "suspended in language".  Is cognitive 
relativism clearly defined as "suspended in language?"  What do you mean by 
language?  Are static patterns of value words only?  Our oral communications 
may be suspended in language, but is that all there is to patterns?  Are 
memory, thought, understand and selfhood nothing more than language?

dmb says:
Oh, I see. You're confused about the difference between contextualism and 
relativism or rather you think they are the same thing. As I tried to explain 
already, one can accept contextualism without also being a relativist. Here's 
how my computer's wiki puts it...
"ContextualismContextualism describes a collection of views in philosophy which 
emphasize the context in which an action, utterance, or expression occurs, and 
argues that, in some important respect, the action, utterance, or expression 
can only be understood relative to that context.[1] Contextualist views hold 
that philosophically controversial concepts, such as "meaning P," "knowing that 
P," "having a reason to A," and possibly even "being true" or "being right" 
only have meaning relative to a specified context. Some philosophers[2] hold 
that context-dependence may lead to relativism;[3] nevertheless, contextualist 
views are increasingly popular within philosophy.[4]"

Notice that part where it says, "SOME philosophers hold that context-dependence 
MAY LEAD TO relativism"? That's what I'm talking about. To say we are 
"suspended in language" means the acceptance of contextualism but not 
necessarily of relativism. The former MAY lead you to the latter but it doesn't 
have to. That's what I'm talking about. And what kind of contextualism DOES 
lead to relativism? The kind that says memory, thought, understanding and 
selfhood are nothing more than language and that there is nothing outside of 
language. Remember those slogans from postmodern thinkers like "there is 
nothing outside the text" and "it's text all the way down" and such? That's why 
people like Rorty are criticized as being a kind of linguistic idealist. The 
MOQ, by contrast, says that there is non-linguistic experience and there is 
something very, very important outside the text, outside of language. 


Marsha said:
Where does the MoQ agree with contextualism?  I thought the MoQ agreed with 
Protagoras' Measure Doctrine.  Arbitrary and capricious?  Is 'arbitrary and 
capricious' your definition of relativism?

dmb says:
The kind of contextualism that leads to relativism would say that our context 
was constructed arbitrarily and capriciously but the MOQ says these contexts 
have evolved as a response to Quality, which prevents it from being arbitrary 
and capricious. Thus contextualism does not lead to relativism. This doesn't 
mean that our context is right and true in every way or even in most ways. But 
the patterns of culture would not persist unless they had value of some kind, 
unless they "worked" on some level. This fits quite nicely with Pirsig's 
reading of Protagoras' measure doctrine. 

"'Man is the measure of all things'. Yes, that's what he is saying about 
Quality. Man is not the SOURCE of all things, as the subjective idealist would 
say. Nor is he the passive observer of all things, as the objective idealists 
and materialist would say. The Quality which creates the world emerges as a 
RELATIONSHIP between man and his experience. He is a PARTICIPANT in the 
creation of all things. The MEASURE of all things - it fits. And they taught 
rhetoric - that fits.  The one thing that doesn't fit...." is relativism.


When we say that our perspective is "relative" to a context, that only means it 
is related or exists in relation to. But you're taking that as a definition of 
relativism but that's just contextualism. As it so happens there are lots of 
philosophers who think one necessarily leads to the other, that it's the only 
reasonable place to go with contextualism, but it seems pretty clear that they 
can't really reach that conclusion unless they also buy into the basic 
assumptions of scientific materialism. In fact lots of them come at the issue 
from a Marxist-Freudian point of view, or what's called "critical theory". In 
the case of Rorty, this materialism takes the shape of things like "verbal 
behaviorism", "eliminative materialism" and "non-reductive physicalism". I 
mean, part of the difference between Pirsig and these relativist has to do with 
very basic metaphysical assumptions.

Try thinking about this a bit. Look into it. Your passion on this topic seems 
to be way out of proportion. This issue has been raging in philosophy since 
before Royce accused James of relativism over a hundred years ago and it's been 
a very hot topic for 50 years. I'm reading relatively new books about 
pragmatism wherein the issue just about steals the show. But when I try to 
explain the context of this debate and the positions of the various parties 
involved in it, you seem to resent it as an appeal to authority. WTF? When did 
"comprehension" become some kind of evil? When did intellectual competence 
become a form of oppression? I must have been out sick that day cause I don't 
remember that ever happening.


                        
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