[John]
Asymmetrical responses? Wait, wasn't it you that said there was new proof that 
they were homogenous?

[Arlo]
Sigh. Really? Really?? This is why its such a waste of time to respond to you 
directly, John. 

Every.. count them, EVERY... post I made about this (including the very one 
with all those citations), I have reiterated "of course there are 
lateralization differences". I have never said, nor even let open to 
implication, that the two sides were "homogenous". And yet here you are, 
despite all that in EVERY SINGLE POST, making this absurd response like "AHA! 
there are differences! and you said there were none."

Sigh.

So. For the record. YOU claimed that dominant "left-brainedness" and 
"right-brainedness" mapped to people who were "classical thinkers" and 
"romantic thinkers". I pointed out that either way you frame it, that 
classical/romantic thinking caused- or was caused by- left/right brain 
dominance WAS WRONG. Period. And the research backs this up completely.

And, in my very first reply I pointed out some of the lateralization they DID 
find, e.g. language tends to be left-lateralized. But this lateralization is 
UNIVERSAL. Language was just as left-lateralized for Einstein as for Picasso. 
And neither of them 'thought more with one side of their brain'. ANY 
lateralization effect found tends to be either universal in this way, or 
individually unique for people who have suffered some form of brain injury.

So, sure, the brain divides tasks around its infrastructure (again, as I have 
said from day ONE), but this division IN NO WAY AT ALL maps to the 'classical 
mode' and 'romantic mode' of thinking that Pirsig describes as competing ways 
of understanding the word in ZMM.

Either you don't read what I write, or you willingly twist it to create an 
endless shifting-sands landscape of shameless rhetoric. Either way, its a waste 
of my time.


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