As the VAT is included in the price it would be: 100/1.175 = 85.1063829787234 or price/(1+VAT) = VAT exclusive which would be the same as US tax
i think the issue is more related to exclusion or inclusion of tax in the final price. They are both percentages on top of the base price. Regards Scott On 12/10/06, Chris Howe <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
100/ (1-.175) = 121.21212121212121 % = 1/100 --- Andrew Sykes <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > Chris, > > I'm not sure I follow this... > > VAT -> productPrice / (1-VAT) = final price > > productPrice = 100 > VAT = 17.5% > > 100 / (1-17.5) = -6.060606061 ??? > > It should be... > ( productPrice / 100 ) * ( 100 + VAT ) = final price > > Am I misunderstanding your comment? > -- > Kind Regards > Andrew Sykes <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> > Sykes Development Ltd > http://www.sykesdevelopment.com > >
