I recently acquired the above lens and would like to ask what may be one of those "stupid" questions.
I know this lens uses the diaphragm to keep the constant f/4 aperture and was noticing it looks as though if Pentax would have kept it in the full-open position, it would be a f/2.8-f/4. (Or really close to that) My question is, why did Pentax choose to use the diaphragm to have a constant f/4 lens rather than a f/2.8-f/4, which they could, I think, sold for a higher price, or am I missing something? (Wouldn't be the first time) :-) Later, Gary - This message is from the Pentax-Discuss Mail List. To unsubscribe, go to http://www.pdml.net and follow the directions. Don't forget to visit the Pentax Users' Gallery at http://pug.komkon.org .
