Jerry, List:

I am invoking the recently revised posting rules that allow me "to reply to
a response on the same day" only because I can do so quite briefly in this
case.

The quotation below from my previous post is not *my* analysis of *my own*
views, it is *Peirce's *semiotic definition and analysis of a proposition
as presented at EP 2:168 (1903) and CP 5.525 (c. 1905). Personally, I do
not use the terms "supposition," "transposition," or "thesis" at all when
discussing reasoning, whether publicly or privately. However, in medieval
logic, supposition has to do with *terms *standing for general concepts, so
Peirce's analysis assigns them to the logical *predicate *(not logical
*subject*) of a proposition; grammatical transposition has no effect on
that analysis, just like the spatial arrangement of multiple words attached
to a line of identity in Beta EG is logically irrelevant; and unless there
is some technical definition in this context of which I am not aware, a
thesis *is *a proposition.

Regards,

Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian
www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt / twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt

On Tue, Sep 2, 2025 at 4:29 PM Jerry LR Chandler <
[email protected]> wrote:

> Jon, List:
>
> Thank You for your analysis of your views of the term “proposition”.
>
> Curious as it is, it prompts the following:
>
> In your private usage of common terminology for reasoning,
>
> Q. Would you say the same for a “supposition" from the Middle Ages?
>
> Q. Would you say the same for a transposition between Subject - Predicate
> and Predicate - Subject (that is, grammatical homeostasis)?
>
> Q. Would you differentiate any reasoning with these terms (proposition,
> supposition, transposition) from the use of the notion of “thesis” (which
> is, in a Fregean sense, closely related etymologically)?
>
> Have fun!
>
> Cheers
>
> Jerry
>
> On Sep 2, 2025, at 1:03 PM, Jon Alan Schmidt <[email protected]>
> wrote:
>
> Jerry, Jack, List:
>
> JAS: Every proposition has at least one subject that cannot be represented
> *symbolically*, but this does not entail that it is structurally
> incapable of denoting it--only that it must do so *indexically* instead.
>
> JLRC: Oh dear me, I have a symbol that can not be symbolized! Is this a
> variant on the Russell paradox?
>
>
> No, it is simply the logical principle that every proposition as a symbol
> must *involve* an indexical part to denote at least one of its subjects.
> As Peirce explains, "A proposition is a symbol which separately INDICATES
> its object, and the representation in the proposition of that object is
> called the *subject *of the proposition. Now to INDICATE is to represent
> in the manner in which an index represents. ... Thus the subject of a
> proposition if not an index is a precept prescribing the conditions under
> which an index is to be had" (EP 2:168, 1903). This is another way of
> saying that "after all that words can convey has been thrown into the
> predicate, there remains a subject that is indescribable and that can only
> be pointed at or otherwise indicated, unless a way, of finding what is
> referred to, be prescribed" (CP 5.525, c. 1905).
>
>
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