Re: Ben Udell
At: http://permalink.gmane.org/gmane.science.philosophy.peirce/13842
Ben,
I suppose it was a mistake on my part to react so strongly to one person's summary of another
person's position, but I guess it caught me by surprise. If by "symbolic" one means nothing more
than "that which I choose to regard as a symbol for the nonce" and otherwise otherwise, then I can
see no problem with that, so long as the interpretive nature of the classification is acknowledged.
Whether Peirce makes it clear in a given text or not, I think it follows from the body of his work
that any moderately complex propositional expression is bound to have symbols among its components.
Regards,
Jon
Benjamin Udell wrote:
Jon,
Why not be a bit more specific? You know that Peirce starting in 1903
Syllabus "Nomenclature and Division of Triadic Relations" says that some
dicisigns (a.k.a. dicent signs) are symbols and some dicisigns instead
are indices. Is your argument that every dicisign incorporates a symbol
(I can't remember Peirce's view on this)? - and that, therefore, every
dicisign is symbolic, even if not every dicisign is a symbol? In that
case your objection seems a bit strong since it would be focused on Gary
F.'s using the adjective "symbolic" rather than the noun "symbol."
But maybe your objection consists in something else. Why leave people
guessing?
Best, Ben
On 9/2/2014 10:30 AM, Jon Awbrey wrote:
Re: Gary Fuhrman
At: http://permalink.gmane.org/gmane.science.philosophy.peirce/13838
"I think your book will change all that, showing as it does a dicisign
— that is, a sign complete enough to be true — must involve both
iconic and indexical components, but does not have to be symbolic."
Gary,
That statement is the very epitome of the retrograde motion that has
occurred in the understanding of Peirce's logic and semiotics in
recent years. If that really is Frederik's thesis then you have just
saved me the trouble of an utterly futile discussion.
Regards,
Jon
Gary Fuhrman wrote:
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