Re: Ben Udell
At: http://permalink.gmane.org/gmane.science.philosophy.peirce/13842

Ben,

I suppose it was a mistake on my part to react so strongly to one person's summary of another person's position, but I guess it caught me by surprise. If by "symbolic" one means nothing more than "that which I choose to regard as a symbol for the nonce" and otherwise otherwise, then I can see no problem with that, so long as the interpretive nature of the classification is acknowledged.

Whether Peirce makes it clear in a given text or not, I think it follows from the body of his work that any moderately complex propositional expression is bound to have symbols among its components.

Regards,

Jon

Benjamin Udell wrote:
Jon,

Why not be a bit more specific? You know that Peirce starting in 1903 Syllabus "Nomenclature and Division of Triadic Relations" says that some dicisigns (a.k.a. dicent signs) are symbols and some dicisigns instead are indices. Is your argument that every dicisign incorporates a symbol (I can't remember Peirce's view on this)? - and that, therefore, every dicisign is symbolic, even if not every dicisign is a symbol? In that case your objection seems a bit strong since it would be focused on Gary F.'s using the adjective "symbolic" rather than the noun "symbol."

But maybe your objection consists in something else. Why leave people guessing?

Best, Ben

On 9/2/2014 10:30 AM, Jon Awbrey wrote:

Re: Gary Fuhrman
At: http://permalink.gmane.org/gmane.science.philosophy.peirce/13838

"I think your book will change all that, showing as it does a dicisign — that is, a sign complete enough to be true — must involve both iconic and indexical components, but does not have to be symbolic."

Gary,

That statement is the very epitome of the retrograde motion that has occurred in the understanding of Peirce's logic and semiotics in recent years. If that really is Frederik's thesis then you have just saved me the trouble of an utterly futile discussion.

Regards,

Jon

Gary Fuhrman wrote:


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