> On Oct 26, 2015, at 12:26 PM, [email protected] wrote: > > There was indeed a “reversal” of usage of the terms “subjective” and > “objective” starting in the 17th century, but no such reversal with “subject” > and “object.” This is explained in the Turning Signs chapter at > http://www.gnusystems.ca/TS/rlb.htm <http://www.gnusystems.ca/TS/rlb.htm>, > which includes (toward the end) Peirce’s entry on the matter in the Century > Dictionary. As for changes in the usage of the term “subject”, another TS > chapter goes into that: > http://www.gnusystems.ca/TS/slf.htm <http://www.gnusystems.ca/TS/slf.htm>. > John Deely’s recent work covers the subject in much more detail. >
Thank you very much for that Gary. I truly appreciate it. What recent work of Deely’s were you thinking of? (I loved a lot of his work but haven’t kept up on what he’s been doing) To what you were correcting I had thought that in addition to the issue with adjectives there was also the shift for Aristotle’s use of subject as substrate to the linguistic sense of subjects of predicates (which also comes from Aristotle originally I think). You included both in that second link. I’ll confess I’m only loosely up on the history — usually just when an author deals with it in passing as they advance to their main topic. However it seems to me you get at the idea of “independent existence” versus “substance in which attributes inhere.” That was more what I was getting at. Maybe it is just my context, but I very rarely here this latter use and I’ve notice it confuses people at times. I’d assumed this was primarily a shift along with the shift in subjective. But I guess I was incorrect in that. Thank you again for the links. I learned quite a bit from them and plan to read them again this weekend.
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