Helmut,

Helmut Raulien kirjoitti 22.12.2017 18:14:
Kirsti,
is the term "part" already defined?

No, it is not. You hit the point with "virtual".

Best, Kirsti

-----
I think, if it is defined
geometrically, then a sign does not have parts. If a sign is a
function that depends on subfunctions, which may be seen as parts,
then I think it has the parts sign itself, object, interpretant. But,
because you cannot take a sign apart in reality (the subfunctions
cannot exist alone), these parts are ideational or virtual ones. But
any way you see it, I donot see the connection with the continuum
problem (line consisting or not of points).
Best,
Helmut

 22. Dezember 2017 um 06:30 Uhr
 [email protected]
 wrote:
Helmut,

 I was not using a metaphor. Nor was I suggesting what you inferred I
 did. I just posed two questions, one on sign, one on meaning. Which,
of
 course, are deeply related. But how?

 To my mind both questions are worth careful ponderings. Especially in
 connection with this phase in the Lowell lectures.

 Peirce was an experimentalist. In philosophy one does not need a
 laboratory, but one needs though experiments.

 I was inviting to participate in such experimenting. Writing down the
 question and searching for answers which logically fit with the
 question, is such an experiment.

 Simplest math is recommended by CSP as starting point. To clear our
 logical muddles and confusions, so I have inferred.

 EGs are based on simple geometrical ideas, such as points and lines.
 Which are cafefully developed into logical instruments, vehicles for
 logical thinking.

 Comments?

 Kirsti

 Helmut Raulien kirjoitti 21.12.2017 21:32:
 > Gary, Kirsti, List,
 > I do not agree, that the geometrical metaphor suits. "Part of",
 > geometrically or spatially understood, is only one kind of being a
 > part of. Kirsti suggested, that meaning is a part of a sign. But is
 > meaning metaphorizable as a point on the line, with the line
 > metphorizable as a sign? Ok, a common speech metaphor is "I get the
 > point" for "I get the meaning". But still I think, that a
functional
 > part is something completely different from a spatial, geometrical
 > part, a compartment. A sign is a function, not a range with a clear
 > spatial border, and there are different laws applying, which are
not
 > geometrical, though there may be geometrical metaphors, but I think
 > they stumble. And: Metaphorization is not analysis. It is poetry.
 > Best,
 > Helmut
 >
 > 21. Dezember 2017 um 15:39 Uhr
 > [email protected]
 > wrote:
 >
 > Kirsti, list,
 >
 > Asking whether a sign has parts is like asking whether a line has
 > points. Peirce has a comment on that in one of my blog posts from
last
 > month, http://gnusystems.ca/wp/2017/11/stigmata/ [1] [1]. By the
way,
 > according to my sources, Aristotle used the word σημεῖον
for
 > _point_ before Euclid.
 >
 > Gary f.
 >
 > -----Original Message-----
 > From: [email protected] [mailto:[email protected]]
 > Sent: 21-Dec-17 01:25
 >
 > Listers,
 >
 > Perhaps It is good to remember historical changes with names used
for
 > geometrical point. Euclid introduced the word SEMEION, and defined
it
 > as that which has no parts, and his followers started to that word
 > instead of the earlier STIGME . - But (with latin) the Romans &
later
 > Boethius changed it to PUNCTUM in their commentaries.
 >
 > Does a sign have parts? - How about meaning?
 >
 > Best, Kirsti
 >
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