Gary F., List:

I acknowledge the ambiguity of words like "logic," "phenomenology," and
"semeiotic" in Peirce's writings taken as a whole, and (especially) in
philosophical discourse generally.  However, the current topic of
discussion is really quite narrow--where Semeiotic is situated in Peirce's
classification of the sciences; specifically, "his last complete version"
(CP 1.180-202), which supposedly was the primary basis for John Sowa's
diagram.  CP 1.191 *unambiguously* equates all three branches of
Semeiotic--Speculative Grammar, Critic, and Methodeutic--with Logic as the
third branch of Normative Science.  Nothing in the rest of CP 1.180-202
states or implies that *any *aspect of Semeiotic belongs *anywhere else *in
Peirce's classification.

Regards,

Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman
www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt

On Sun, Mar 10, 2019 at 5:22 PM <[email protected]> wrote:

> Jon,
>
> On the contrary, your reply to JS does not address the points I raised at
> all — the chief of which was the ambiguity of the word “logic” in Peirce’s
> usage, which he managed to gloss over in CP 1.191, the one place where he
> did use “logic” in the broad sense (i.e. as semeiotic) while *also *referring
> to it as “Normative.” My post (plus correction) was an attempt to account
> for that example, and for the other passage you quote below, by situating
> them in their context. If my attempt doesn’t work for you, or you prefer to
> use these terms inflexibly rather than admit their ambiguity in Peirce’s
> usage, there’s nothing further I can do.
>
> As for your dispute with John S, rather than taking sides on the issue, I
> prefer to attribute the dispute itself to the ambiguity of the words
> “phenomenology” and “semeiotic.” This is the same ambiguity which caused
> Joe Ransdell, a very responsible scholar, to say that almost all of
> Peirce’s phenomenology really came under the heading of semeiotic. I don’t
> agree with that position, or with John’s, or with yours for that matter,
> because I think you are all assuming that the references of these
> classificatory terms are more exact than they actually are, and coming to
> different conclusions about what they (so exactly) mean. I think it would
> help to consider *all* of Peirce’s “Ethics of Terminology,” and not *only*
> the recommendation that every *scientific* term should have a single
> exact meaning. That simply doesn’t work with terms that are in widespread
> use; it only works in highly specialized disciplines. (I think it was
> rather quixotic on Peirce’s part to try to make cenoscopy, or philosophy,
> into such a specialized discipline.)
>
> Ironically, Peirce himself recognizes this kind of problem in the very
> text named in our subject line. It’s the problem that in the discourse of
> positive sciences, generalization necessarily leads to simplification which
> amounts to falsification if considered too precisely. I’ve quoted it
> before, but here it is again:
>
> [[ in speaking above of a “generalized” icon, I used the qualification in
> a sense of “generalize” common among designers, especially among
> cartographers, as well as in vernacular talk, though it is not the proper
> logical sense of the verb, since it does not signify the removal of any
> constituent of logical depth from a condition, nor confers any liberty on
> the interpreter, but implies some almost microscopic items that are really
> falsifications committed in the interest of simplification. Thus, a map
> “generalizes” its image of a river in representing the latter as not making
> sundry small windings that it really does make. So recollection may be said
> to “generalize” the remembered perception in representing this to be
> without many insignificant details that really did belong to it; and
> although an icon is not, properly speaking, *general*, so far as it is a
> pure icon, yet every icon must “generalize,” more or less, in this peculiar
> sense. ]]
>
> Peirce is referring specifically to icons here, but it is obviously true
> of verbal descriptions, and even more so of class-names, that they tend to
> “generalize,” “falsify” and “simplify” simultaneously. I would argue that
> this happens whenever Peirce refers to “logic” as a “normative science.” As
> I think I have shown, the term “normative” does much more than distinguish
> one kind of logic (“normative”) from another (“formal logic”). Hence the
> need for Peirce to explain, as he does in your quote, that some adjustments
> are needed in our concept of what “normative” means in the phrase
> “normative sciences.” Those rivers have windings which are glossed over by
> the usual signification of the term “normative.”
>
> Also relevant here, I think, are Peirce’s remarks about thinkers getting
> into “ruts” which prevent them from presenting their own theories as well
> as they might be presented by somebody else. He is talking specifically
> about improvements to his system of Existential Graphs, but he is also
> generalizing from that:
>
> [[ Experience seems further to show, what is credible enough *a priori*,
> the needful improvements are more likely to be discerned by some second
> person, whose mind is free from any deep ruts that may probably have been
> formed in that of the original inventor, by the particular way in which he
> has happened long to ponder the problem while it was not yet solved,
> passing over and over again one roadway of thought; not to speak of the
> effect of those same ruts in causing the original inventor to regard his
> way of solving the problem as simpler, that is to say, more facile and
> natural, than others that, in the absence of such ruts, are far superior to
> it in that respect. This consideration has encouraged me to publish my
> proof in the simplest form in which I can present it in a limited time;
> since I am led to believe that it is not my part, but that of some other
> thinker, to metamorphose my proof into a new form, in which it shall be
> vastly superior to its first incorporation, alike in point of evidence and
> in that of simplicity. ]]
>
> I might surmise that the “simplest form” in which he tried to publish his
> “proof” of pragmaticism turned out to be MS 318 (simply entitled
> “Pragmatism” in EP2), which was unfortunately rejected by two publishers
> and did not appear in Peirce’s lifetime. In any case, he was hoping that
> “some other thinker” would improve on what he had done because it would
> avoid his own “ruts.” Whether that has happened, I am not prepared to say.
> Anyway, I think one’s attempt to regularize terminology that is naturally
> multivalent is likely to deepen whatever ruts one already tends to get
> stuck in.
>
> Gary f.
>
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