Ben says:

"I thought I was so concise that it was okay to pull the topic in my 
favorite direction, since it seemed brief. But I have to make some additions 
and corrections."

Ben, I hadn't read your latest message in responding to your earlier message 
as I do below, and am not sure whether your subsequent comments bear on what 
I say or not but will just go ahead and post them anyway.   (I should add 
that the MS from which the quote you are commenting on is drawn was not 
completely quoted by me and what was omitted is perhaps pertinent to it, 
given the direction you went from it.  I will perhaps post the whole thing 
separately in a later message.)

Ben says:


===QUOTE BEN================
Peirce:

"The point of contact is the living mind which is affected in a similar way 
by real things and by their signs. And this is the only possible point of 
contact."

The mind alone recognizes sign and interpretant as corresponding to the 
real. Yet that mind's recognition of the signs' corresponding to the object 
is not the mind's sign for the object yet is the mind's _something_ 
regarding the object, something involving experience of the object. Maybe 
it's just that, experience, and experience is something "outside" semiosis, 
technically non-semiotic in that sense, and supporting semiosis by external 
pressure? (No, I don't think that, in case anybody is wondering :-))
======END QUOTE===============

REPLY:

I wonder if in talking about correspondence, you are looking for something 
that just isn't to be found, Ben, namely, a statement of verification of a 
certain cognitive claim that is something other than a mere repetition of 
the same claim because it claims that the claim corresponds to the way the 
object actually is.  (I say this in view of your opinion that confirmation 
or verification is a logically distinct factor that Peirce fails to take due 
account of as a logically distinct fourth factor in his category theory.)

Let us suppose that some person, P1, makes a certain knowledge claim, C1, 
about a certain object, O, namely, that O is F. And let us suppose that a 
second person, P2, makes a claim, C2, about that claim, saying, yes, O 
really is as P1 claims it is, namely, F. (In other words, he makes what may 
seem to be a verifying claim.)  And suppose that P2's claim differs from 
P1's claim not as regards any difference in evidential basis for saying that 
O is F but only because C2 is about the relationship between claim C1 and O 
and their observed correspondence, whereas C1 is just about O. (In other 
words, P1 is merely saying that O is F whereas P2 is saying not only that O 
is F but also that P1 is saying that O is F and is therefore speaking the 
truth.) Supposing that the two persons are equivalent as regards their 
generally recognized status as people who try to speak the truth.

Question: Is P2's claim that P1 is speaking the truth a verification of P1's 
claim?

Given that there is no difference in their evidential base and that P1 and 
P2 are on par as recognized truth-tellers, it would seem not. Why? Because 
P1's simple claim that O is F could just as well be taken as verification by 
P1 that P2 is right in claiming that O is F.

The general point is that in thinking about the need for verification you 
are thinking of a verifying statement -- a verification -- as differing from 
the statement being verified because the verifier is performing an act of 
comparison of correspondence that is of a different logical type than the 
act of making the claim being verified, whereas the one is logically on par 
with the other. Thus e.g. when one gets a second opinion from another 
physician, let us say, one is not ipso facto getting an opinion that can 
either verify or disverify the first, though we may mistakenly think that 
this is what we are doing. But a second opinion is just a further opinion, 
as a third, fourth, etc., and it doesn't make any difference which one comes 
first.  Of course, we could take the second opinion as verification of the 
first provided we brought to bear some further considerations, but amongst 
them would NOT be the fact that one of them could be construed as differing 
from the other because it involved a comparison of the other as an opinion 
with the object of that opinion.  In other words, there is never really any 
such thing as a correspondence comparison of opinion and fact or sign and 
object of sign in the sense you implicitly have in mind.

Joe



Joe Ransdell

[EMAIL PROTECTED]



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