Ted wrote:
He also claims that village communities in India isolated individuals, i.e. involved a poverty of "real connections," and, given the above claim, that this was a major obstacle to the intellectual development of those individuals. Is this true?
Apparently you did not read Aijaz carefully. He pointed out that Marx's knowledge of India was very limited when he wrote those Tribune articles. India was actually far wealthier than Great Britain in the 1700s and the farming system was just as productive as Great Britain's, if not more so. I think you should make an effort to lay off the abstractions and familiarize yourself with the territory.
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