My reply to Brad?s question:

Marx argued that crises are caused by a falling rate of profit during 
periods of expansion. The falling rate of profit is caused in turn by 
labor-saving technological change which increases the composition of 
capital (i.e. the ratio of constant capital to variable capital.) The 
rate of profit varies inversely with the composition of capital because 
labor (purchased with variable capital) is the source of surplus-value.

Therefore, a lasting recovery from a crisis requires restoring the rate 
of profit back up to its previous levels. According to Marx's theory, 
the "Keynesian cure" does not address this fundamental problem of a 
falling rate of profit. Expansionary policies can result in a positive 
"utilization effect" on the rate of profit, but that only reverses the 
prior negative utilization effect as a result of the crisis and the 
downturn. Expansionary policies do not affect the too low "full 
employment rate of profit" (FERP), whose fall caused the crisis in the 
first place.

According to Marx's theory, the FERP depends on the rate of 
surplus-value (positively) and the composition of capital (negatively). 
Therefore, in order to increase the FERP, either the rate of 
surplus-value must be increased (by means of wage-cuts, speed-ups, 
increased productivity) or/and the composition of capital must be 
reduced (through bankruptcies, acquisition of bankrupt firms at e.g. 
20c on the $). Keynesian expansionary policies do not increase the rate 
of surplus-value or reduce the composition of capital. If anything, 
expansionary policies inhibit wage cuts to increase the rate of 
surplus-value and bankruptcies to reduce the composition of capital. 
Which is of course a good thing in the short run, but it does not fix 
the long-run problem.

Therefore, Keynesian expansionary policies may boost the economy 
temporarily, but they do not solve the fundamental problem of a too low 
FERP.

This has nothing to do with gold. It has everything to do with the rate 
of profit, which is the crucial variable in Marx's theory, and which 
Brad does not mention at all. This is to be expected I guess, because 
the rate of profit is not a variable in mainstream macroeconomics. Can 
you imagine? A theory of capitalism without a theory of profit!  It is 
like physics without a theory of energy. This is a point of clear 
superiority of Marx's theory over mainstream macroeconomics.

This paragraph comes from an entry on Brad's blog about Chapter 17 of 
Theories of Surplus-Value, which Brad read in order to assess Marx's 
theory of crisis. This is a strange choice since Chapter 17 is about 
RICARDO's theory of crisis, not Marx's (as the title of the chapter 
indicates). Of course, Marx also makes some points that would be part 
of his own theory of crisis, but his full theory of crisis is certainly 
NOT presented in this chapter. Chapter 17 says nothing about 
technological change causing the composition of capital to rise and the 
rate of profit to fall. (Although, if Brad had read further into the 
third volume of TSV, he would have encountered a rough sketch of some 
details of this theory in Chapters 22 and 23 on Ramsay and Cherbuliez, 
respectively.) As Marx emphasizes in Chapter 17, his focus there is the 
POSSIBILITY of crises (hence the critique of Say's Law, which Ricardo 
accepted), not the actual causes of crises. The most complete 
presentation of Marx's theory of the falling rate of profit is of 
course in Part 3 of Volume 3 of Capital.

Brad is to be commended for at least being interested in Marx?s theory 
of crisis.  99% of mainstream economists are not interested at all, to 
their detriment.

The main source on a Marxian theory of Keynesian policies is Paul 
Mattick, Marx and Keynes: The Limits of the Mixed Economy, as Jim 
mentioned.

Fred


Quoting Brad DeLong <[email protected]>:

> The question remains. Given the absence of commercial crises and depressions
> in the AMP and the FMP, why wouldn't replicating the building of cathedrals,
> the building of aqueducts, or the conquest of Gaul stave off the crisis and
> so allow capitalism to engage in stable, balanced growth?
>
> Lenin writes that the conquest of Gaul does--but eventually you run out of
> Gauls. But that doesn't explain why the public sector can't stabilize things
> via non-military Keynesianism. To my knowledge Marx never provided an
> answer--but he was damned sure it wouldn't...
>
> Yours,
>
> Brad DeLong


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