Re: Maudlin's argument

2006-10-13 Thread marc . geddes


Russell Standish wrote:

 

 Most ensemble theories of everything would postulate that all possible
 observer moments are already there in the ensemble. This is
 certainly true of my construction, as Bruno's and Deutsch's
 Multiverse. It is debatable in Schmidhuber's though, as he seems to
 have some notion of time that his Great Programmer lives in.  I'm
 not sure what the status of Tegmark's ensemble is, but I doubt there
 is any external temporality in that.

 I suspect in that case you would disagree with most of the ensemble
 theories discussed here then.

Right.  The Multiverse does exist but it's just a bunch of meaningless
Shannon information.  It is actually quite trival to see that the
observer moments can't be fully inside that ensemble.  An 'Observer
moment' is a *cognitve interpretation* or *meaning* which is ascribed
to the Shannon information in the ensemble and this meaning is not a
fixed pre-existing thing.



 OTOH, if we're looking at it in terms of an emergent duality picture
 like I suggested, the observer moments do exist in the block
 multiverse, but when asking about appearances this is irrelevant, and
 one can only ask the question what is the probability distribution of
 my next observer moment. This is the RSSA.

 Cheers


Again, the phrase 'probability distribution of next observer moment' is
in my view incoherent, since it presupposes that all observer moments
are already laid down inside the ensemble.

To reason about 'Observer Moment's' properly requires a new kind of
quantatative measure  defined in terms of *degree of reflection*, not
*probability*.  Probability theory just isn't up to the job.  That's
why neither Nick Bostrom nor any-one else can resolve  puzzles of
anthropic reasoning such as the Doomsday argument or the Simulation
argument

---

'...he (Geddes) grabbed the book (of nature/the universe) and turned to
one of the spells...  He concentrated on the symbols and recited the
spell - reading the old (math) symbols easily now, as if it were a
children's book.'


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RE: Maudlin's argument

2006-10-13 Thread Stathis Papaioannou


Marc Geddes writes:

 The implicit assumption in anthropic reasoning is that the observer
 moments are in some sense *already there* (i.e the future and past are
 already layed down in the block universe).  This is what I waas
 disputing.  If the observer moments do *not* in fact pre-exist in a
 fully formed or consistent fashion, then you cannot apply standard
 statistical reasoning about the chances of an 'observer moment' being
 instantiated.
 
 Re-read what I said.  I was disputing the block universe as reagrds
 observer moments.  If  Observer moments don't actually exist until we
 come to them via the river of time, then they cannot be reasoned about
 using standard statistical methods to talk about pre-existing
 frequencies.

Do you believe there is a difference between the experience of a being 
living in a model block universe, such as having the observer moments 
of its life running simultaneously on different machines or as separate  
processes run in parallel on the one machine, and the experience of a 
being running in a linear simulation as per the traditional view of time?

Stathis Papaioannou
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Re: Maudlin's argument

2006-10-13 Thread Russell Standish

On Fri, Oct 13, 2006 at 06:02:01AM -, [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 
 
 Russell Standish wrote:
 
  
 
  Most ensemble theories of everything would postulate that all possible
  observer moments are already there in the ensemble. This is
  certainly true of my construction, as Bruno's and Deutsch's
  Multiverse. It is debatable in Schmidhuber's though, as he seems to
  have some notion of time that his Great Programmer lives in.  I'm
  not sure what the status of Tegmark's ensemble is, but I doubt there
  is any external temporality in that.
 
  I suspect in that case you would disagree with most of the ensemble
  theories discussed here then.
 
 Right.  The Multiverse does exist but it's just a bunch of meaningless
 Shannon information.  It is actually quite trival to see that the
 observer moments can't be fully inside that ensemble.  An 'Observer
 moment' is a *cognitve interpretation* or *meaning* which is ascribed
 to the Shannon information in the ensemble and this meaning is not a
 fixed pre-existing thing.
 

The Multiverse is defined as the set of consistent histories described
by the Schroedinger equation. I make the identification that a quantum
state is an observer moment, and the set of consistent quantum
histories is the set of observer histories. As such all observer
moments are in the Multiverse.

But I appreciate this is not a widely held interpretation...


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Re: Maudlin's argument

2006-10-13 Thread marc . geddes


Stathis Papaioannou wrote:


 Do you believe there is a difference between the experience of a being
 living in a model block universe, such as having the observer moments
 of its life running simultaneously on different machines or as separate
 processes run in parallel on the one machine, and the experience of a
 being running in a linear simulation as per the traditional view of time?

 Stathis Papaioannou


This is a 'philosophical leading question' ;) If my theories are right
you *can't* have a being experiencing things living in a model block
universe.  I suspect that if you tried to actually carry out the
thought experiements you mention (observer moments being simulated
simultaneously), you couldn't be certain of simulating a being with a
fixed identity.

So perhaps I should answer: 'Yes I believe there is a difference.  The
being whose observer moments one is trying to simulate simultaneouly
cannot be garanteed to be the same being as the being simulated
linearly'.

The problem lies in the meaning ascribed to symbols.  The same
computation can mean any number of different things depending on the
encoding system used.  For example the following two bytyes:

45, 65

mean two different things depening on whether ASCII or EBCDIC was used
to encode the meaning of the bytes.

Could one be sure that the same computations run simultaneously *mean*
(i.e encode) the same thing as computations run linearly?  I maintain
you cannot.


Also see my reply to Russell below:


Russell Standish

The Multiverse is defined as the set of consistent histories described
by the Schroedinger equation. I make the identification that a quantum
state is an observer moment, and the set of consistent quantum
histories is the set of observer histories. As such all observer
moments are in the Multiverse.

But I appreciate this is not a widely held interpretation...


Indeed so.  And there's a good reason why it isn't a widely held
interpretation, as J.barbour explained in 'The End Of Time'.  In order
to define 'the Multiverse' in terms of QM one needs a *static*
wave-function solution for the entire universe (one which doesn't
change) , whereas conventional QM solutions to real world problems are
*dynamic* wave-function solutions (wave functions which evolve with
time).  No one has yet succeeded in demonstrating a static
wave-function solution for the entire universe.

See what I said above.  If the *same* QM state could be associated with
*different* observer moments, then observer moments would not be
reducible to QM states and the set of consistent quantum histories
could not be said to be fully identified with the set of observer
histories.


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Re: The difference between a 'chair' concept and a 'mathematical concept' ;)

2006-10-13 Thread 1Z


David Nyman wrote:
 On Oct 13, 1:52 am, 1Z [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

   You know you can, of course. But what you are communicating is
   information derived from your 'seeing a square' in order for others to
   instantiate something analogous, as 1-person experiences of their own.I 
   disagree. Squareness is fully expressible in language.

 Make your mind up. You said 'see a square' not 'squareness'.

  Squareness is fully expressinle, so instantiation
  doesn't matter in that case.

 Yes, fine, no problem of course, so why discuss this example?

It shows that experiences had by persons are not
necessarily incommunicable. Thus, whatever
the pronblem is with qualia, it is not about personhood per se.

 I
 specifically said '1-person experience', and in the case of 'see a
 square' (your choice) let's try the hard one - i.e. communicate the
 experience of seeing a particular square, not the concept of
 squareness. So, for example, you can say 'look at that square', I look
 at it, I see the square, I instantiate it, I have an analogous 1-person
 experience. OK?

 Come to think of it, even in your example of squareness, I have to
 instantiate *something*, otherwise your explanation won't register with
 me.

Are you sure? mathematicians can comunicate higher-dimensional
spaces that they cannot visualise.

 And this something is *my* private something, as it happens
 *derived* from your communication - it isn't literally what you 'had in
 mind', because this is private to *you*.

You are playing on two senses of the same. It may
be an exact duplicate, rather than the very same individual, but if
it is an *exact* duplicate,there is no incommunicability or
ineffability.

 Frankly, I think if you
 quibble about this, you must have some other notion of 1-person in
 mind. But will we ever know?

 David

  David Nyman wrote:
   On Oct 11, 11:17 pm, 1Z [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 
 It may be impossible in principle (i.e. 1-person experience is
 ex-hypothesi incommunicable) and we certainly don't know how  to.So 
 if I see a square, I can't communicate it?
 
   You know you can, of course. But what you are communicating is
   information derived from your 'seeing a square' in order for others to
   instantiate something analogous, as 1-person experiences of their own.I 
   disagree. Squareness is fully expressible in language.
 
   Your 1-person experience per se is incommunicable,That's just my point. 
   It's not the fact that is
  is an experience, or that it is had by a person that makes something
  inexpressible.
 
and consequently you
   have no direct evidence of (although you may be jusified in your
   beliefs concerning) what others have instantiated as a result of your
   communication.Squareness is fully expressinle, so instantiation
  doesn't matter in that case.
 
   David
 
David Nyman wrote:
 On Oct 11, 5:11 am, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 
   But it isn't possible to determine by inspection that they are
   conscious.Are you claiming it's impossible in principle, or just 
   that we don't know how?
 
 It may be impossible in principle (i.e. 1-person experience is
 ex-hypothesi incommunicable) and we certainly don't know how to.So if 
 I see a square, I can't communicate it?
 
Colours and Shapes: Exactly What Qualifies as a Quale ?
Because qualia are so often used to argue against physicalism (or at
least physical communicability), it is often assumed that they must be
mysterious by definition. However Lewis's original definition pins
qualia to the way external objects appear, and it least some of those
features are throughly unmysterious,such as the shapes of objects. A
red square seems to divide into a mysterious redness and an
unmysterious squareness. This does not by itself remove any of the
problems associated with qualia; the problem is that some qualia are
mysterious. not that some are not.. There is another, corresponding
issue; not all mysterious, mental contents are the appearances of
external objects. There a re phenomenal feels attached to emotions,
sensations and so on. Indeed, we often use the perceived qualaities of
objects as metaphors for them -- sharp pains, warm or cool feelings
towards another person, and so on. The main effect of this issue on the
argument is to hinder the physicalist project of reducing qualia to the
phsycally-defined properties of external objects, since in the case of
internal sensations and emotional feelings, there are not suitable
external objects.


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Re: Maudlin's argument

2006-10-13 Thread Russell Standish

On Fri, Oct 13, 2006 at 07:03:18AM -, [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 
 Also see my reply to Russell below:
 
 
 Russell Standish
 
 The Multiverse is defined as the set of consistent histories described
 by the Schroedinger equation. I make the identification that a quantum
 state is an observer moment, and the set of consistent quantum
 histories is the set of observer histories. As such all observer
 moments are in the Multiverse.
 
 But I appreciate this is not a widely held interpretation...
 
 
 Indeed so.  And there's a good reason why it isn't a widely held
 interpretation, as J.barbour explained in 'The End Of Time'.  In order
 to define 'the Multiverse' in terms of QM one needs a *static*
 wave-function solution for the entire universe (one which doesn't
 change) , whereas conventional QM solutions to real world problems are
 *dynamic* wave-function solutions (wave functions which evolve with
 time).  No one has yet succeeded in demonstrating a static
 wave-function solution for the entire universe.
 

I haven't read Barbour's book, but if that is what he is saying, he
would be wrong. Consider a universe of a single electron living in a
potential well V(x)=|x|^2, x\in R^3. There is a well defined solution
\psi(t,x) = \sum_j \psu_0|jj| exp(-iE_j t) given the initial
condition \psi_0.

The function \psi: R x R^3 - C is a static (time independent)
mathematical object (I wrote it the mathematicians write to emphasize
this point). Why wouldn't you identify this with the Multiverse of
that electron?

Now I am aware that several people (Hawking included I gather) have
proposed various wave functions of the universe, which tend to be
solutions of the Wheeler de Witt equation, which is a time independent
equation. However, I'm not so interested in following that literature.

 See what I said above.  If the *same* QM state could be associated with
 *different* observer moments, then observer moments would not be
 reducible to QM states and the set of consistent quantum histories
 could not be said to be fully identified with the set of observer
 histories.
 

If the same QM state is associated with different observer moments,
you must be talking about some non-functionalist approach to
consciousness. The QM state, by definition, contains all information
that can be extracted from observation.

Cheers 


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Mathematics  
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Re: To observe is to......

2006-10-13 Thread Colin Geoffrey Hales

snip

[Colin Hales]
No, it's better visualised as 'being a not-mirror' :-)
Imagine you embedded a mirror in your head, but you were only interested
in everything the mirror was not. That is, the image in the mirror is 
manipulating the space intimately adjacent to the reflecting surface.
Keep the space, throw the reflecting surface and glass away. What you are 
interested in is 'being' that space, not the mirror. When you do that
the 'movie screen' that is the experiential field becomes part of you. Yes
it's a play, only 1 viewer who literally 'is' the theatre, no regressing 
homunculi.

[David Nyman]
Oddly, I think I *see* what you mean (and I use the term advisedly).  One
of the problems we experience in discussing these issues (certainly  I do,
anyway) is the lack of a really effective way to share powerful 
*visualisations* of what we're proposing. Not everything we're trying  to
express is formalisable (at this stage anyway) in mathematical or 
strictly logical terms. I've tried to express before this image of the 
relationship between what-is-functioning-as-perceiver and
what-is-functioning-as-percept, and the picture in my head was always 
something like you describe. And the key aspect is that you *are* this 
relationship, your grasp of the situation is unmediated, there is no 
regress. For me, this is the primary intension of 'exists', and it lies 
at the heart of what I confusingly referred to as 1-person primacy - 
meaning only that you can't come by any of this unless you *are* the 
entity in question. The commitment is total - there is no way of
climbing outside of this to study the situation 'objectively'.

[Colin Hales]
Glad to 'see' that you 'see'. :-)

It is very interesting to see how much trouble people have with this and
it is very ironic because it is the position we naturally inhabit (all
observation is subjectivity), yet the subjectivity delivers the capacity
to behave objectively so brilliantly we think we have actually stepped
back from it... but as you say...

there is no way of climbing outside of this to study the situation
'objectively'

Yet that is what we scientists insist we are doing! Without subjectivity
there's no 'objectivity' (in the form of an 'as-if' or virtual
objectivity) to be had. The descriptions we define as 'objective' and
describe 'objectively' are merely generalisations in respect of
appearances of what bruno would call 'objective' (actual) reality...what
it is that is actually there, whatever it is that is the 'underlying
reality'. That also delivers the appearances into your brain/via your
brain, which as actually made of the underlying reality, not of anything
we divine through the appearances it delivers.

Indeed I would hold that our subjective experience (subjectivity)is our
one and only intimate and complete connection to the underlying reality
and it is the existence of it (subjectivity) 'at all' which is most
telling/instructive  of the true nature/structure of the underlying
reality, not the appearances thus delivered by subjectivity.

As I think I have said before: 'seeing' is evidence of the underlying
reality and its capcity to deliver 'that which is seen'. The latter
delivers two sorts of evidence

a) more evidence of the organisation of the underlying reality
b) what we regard as objective evidence used by scientists in formulations
of emopirical laws that organise the appearances but tell us nothing about
the underlying reality because we throw (a) away for no reason other than
it is our culture to do so.

There's a lot more to observation than merely 'that which is seen'. The
act of seeing at all is also observation.

Metaphorically... if you hear X is true being said you get 2 lots of
evidence, not one:
c) some evidence in support of the proposition that X is true
d) more definite evidence of the proposition somebody said something

'that which is seen' corresponds to X is true
The underlying reality is the 'somebody'

Science calls any consideration of the 'somebody' as evidenceless
non-scientific metaphysics and spurns/eschews it when is is actually
_more_ evidenced! in that (d) is a better supported claim than (c)

That's about the lot on 'observation' except to wonder when mainstream
science (in particular cosmology and neuroscience) finally 'get it'. This
simple cultural foible hides the key to 'everything'. The belief that the
'underlying reality is actually made of quantum mechanics (as opposed to
being merely described by it) to me looks like a mass delusion of the most
bizarre kind. Thomas Kuhn should be marching up and down with placard
saying NO MORE EVIDENCE-ISM EVIDENCE DISCRIMINATION UNFAIR TO
UNDERLYING REALITY. :-)

cheers,

Colin Hales


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