Re: Aaronson/Penrose

2016-06-04 Thread Bruce Kellett

On 5/06/2016 3:31 am, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 04 Jun 2016, at 01:28, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Sure, Bell's theorem only rules out local hidden variables. If you 
simulate non-local hidden variables (i.e., get the separated 
experimenters to communicate non-locally), then of course you can 
reproduce the quantum correlations. But I was under the impression  
that the computationalist goal was to eliminate non-locality. 
Separated experimenters, with as much computing power as necessary, 
cannot simulate the quantum correlations by performing only local 
computations.


You can simulate the whole (multiversial) structure, and the observers 
will find that from their perspective, Bell's inequality are violated. 
From outside, we can see (like Everett saw) that it is just a case of 
self-duplication FPI. (Which brings us back to the preceding thread of 
course).


I think you are trying to move the goal posts here The original 
argument about non-locality in MWI was the contention by people like 
Price, Tipler, Brown, and Christian that Bell made certain assumptions 
that were not true in the Everetttian approach. Their conclusion was 
that his theorem was not applicable to the MWI, rendering the argument 
that local hidden variables were ruled out inapplicable in that case. 
(Though Joy Christian tries to go further and argues that Bell made a 
trivial mistake that rendered his 'theorem' invalid in all 
interpretations.) I have rebutted the various claims of these papers in 
other posts: Bell does not depend on such ill-defined things as 
counterfactual definiteness, and certainly does not assume that 
experiments have only single outcomes. My conclusion is that Bell's 
theorem is valid universally -- merely changing the interpretation does 
not alter that, and thus non-locality has been shown to be intrinsic to 
quantum mechanics.


You are now attempting to change the argument: you appear now to accept 
that individual experimenters will see the quantum world as non-local, 
but that this is merely an observer-dependent effect, arising from 
self-location in the multiverse: another instance of FPI. I think that 
you have to do a bit more work on this changed approach to non-locality: 
I think you will find that the argument does not work like the FPI 
account of apparent indeterminism in a deterministic universe. Bell's 
theorem applies to every set of correlations obtained by experimenters 
in every branch of the universal wave function -- there is no 'external' 
perspective from which Bell' s theorem does not apply. If there were, 
there would have to be a local account available from the 'bird' 
perspective, and there is no such account. If you claim that there is, 
then the onus is on you to produce that account. The singlet state


   |psi> = (|+>|-> - |->|+>)/sqrt(2)

is the wave function from the 'bird' perspective, and particles 1 and 2 
are separated in the 'bird' perspective as much as in any 'frog' 
perspective. Going outside the perspective of the individual 
experimenters does not actually gain you anything in this instance.


Bruce

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Re: Aristotle the Nitwit

2016-06-04 Thread John Clark
On Fri, Jun 3, 2016 at 2:15 PM, Bruno Marchal  wrote:

​> ​
> Peano Arithmetic (RA + the induction axioms) proves that all computations
> exist.


​Proving an answer exists is not the same as proving you have the answer,
or even proving that in theory an answer can be found.

​If it were otherwise ​
Giuseppe Peano
​ would have been Silicon Valley's first billionaire. ​

​> ​
> You have to endow the universal Turing machine or number with magical
> abilities for them to avoid arithmetical zombiness.
>

​
Yes, if that were not so
​
,
​
and assuming Darwin was right (he was)
​
,
​
then
​
no
​
conscious
​
being would exist in the universe
​,​
​
and yet I know for a fact that
​ at least​
one does. You're probably conscious too and for the same reason. I have a
explanation of how and why Evolution produced intelligent behavior
​​
but I have no explanation why intelligent behavior
​
produces consciousness except to say consciousness is the way data feels
​
like
​
when it is being processed
​,
and if it's a brute fact that's all that can be said
​
and all that
​
needs to be said about it.

​> ​
> When you say "All the theories and all the hypotheses that have ever
> existed were developed by brains made of matter that obey the laws of
> physics, and the way they were communicated to other brains also involved
> matter that obey the laws of physics. There are no exceptions. None. ",
> that is exactly what we mean by "Aristotelian Matter".
>

​Who is "we"?​

​I want nothing to do with Aristotle, he was a nitwit.

​>> ​
>> Do you really
>> ​ ​
>> doubt that
>> ​ ​
>> electrons are made of matter that obeys the laws of physics
>> ​ ​
>> ?!
>
>

​> ​
> My opinion is private and of no interest.


​Jez, I'm not asking about your sex life I'm asking a legitimate question
​about the physics of electrons. Are you ashamed at what your answer would
be?



>> ​>> ​
>> you
>> ​can't ​
>> observe
>> ​, ​
>> even in theory​,
>>  computations
>> ​ that exist in ​
>> arithmetic
>> ​ but not in physics; and that is just another way of saying that such
>> computations don't exist.
>>
>
> ​> ​
> Then prime numbers do not exist,
>

​The very first program my brain, which is made of matter that obeys the
laws of physics, ever wrote instructed a computer, ​
which is made of matter that obeys the laws of physics, to print a list of
prime numbers on a paper, ​
which is made of matter that obeys the laws of physics.​


​> ​
> You might not understand well what is a theory, or what are theoretical
> assumptions.
>

​Then show me a computation that doesn't use matter that obeys the laws of
physics and I'll understand it better.​

​And I'll contact INTEL about it too.​

​> ​
> Computationalism explains the appearance of blackboards, and of textbooks,
> without assuming the existence of blackboard and textbooks
>

​How would things be different if ​
blackboard
​s​
and textbooks
​ DID exist? What does "exist" even mean in your context?​

​> ​
> The physical has a mathematical reason.
>

If so I have great trouble understanding why changing the physical brain of
a mathematician changes not only his
​
mathematical reasoning but also his consciousness. I think there is more
evidence the mathematical has a physical reason.

​ John K Clark​

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Re: Is evolution the only complexity generating process

2016-06-04 Thread Russell Standish
On Sat, Jun 04, 2016 at 07:53:47PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
> 
> On 04 Jun 2016, at 03:17, Russell Standish wrote:
> 
> >
> >>Only a measure on the existing computations.
> >>Of course, all this list is based on the idea that the overall
> >>theory should be simple (like RA), but even without notion of
> >>observers, such simple theory admit a rich third person theory of
> >>complexity.
> >
> >I still don't see it.
> 
> You can prove the existence of the observer in the theory RA. It is
> the proof of the existence of the universal machine and of their
> computations. RA is already sigma_1 complete. If ZF proves the
> Riemann hypothesis, then RA will prove that ZF proves Riemann
> hypothesis (despite RA itself cannot even prove that 0 + x = x).
> 
> We don't need to assume more than RA or the SK axioms. 3p Observers
> are defined in such theories. They are richer and more complex than
> RA.
> 

This is close to the crux of out disagreement. Yes of course by
assumption observers can be defined in RA  by finding the right
machine. However, what the observers observe is not defined in RA, but
rather emerges out of RA.

I see that RA itself is a fairly simple thing, and the UD even simpler
for that matter, but emerging out of it are 1p experiences that are
complex, and complexify over time via an evolutionary process.

The complexity is not innate to the platonic realm as you state. It
emerges out of it by considering 1p experience.

My fairly strong claim is that this is the only way complexity can
arise.

Cheers

-- 


Dr Russell StandishPhone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Senior Research Fellowhpco...@hpcoders.com.au
Economics, Kingston University http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: Aaronson/Penrose

2016-06-04 Thread Bruce Kellett

On 5/06/2016 3:31 am, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 04 Jun 2016, at 01:28, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On 4/06/2016 4:16 am, Brent Meeker wrote:
If the world is a simulation, i.e. is being computed by a Turing 
machine, then the computation can implement non-local hidden 
variables and violate Bell's inequality in the simulated world (in 
fact all its variables would be non-local since locality and 
spacetime would just be computed phenomena).


Sure, Bell's theorem only rules out local hidden variables. If you 
simulate non-local hidden variables (i.e., get the separated 
experimenters to communicate non-locally), then of course you can 
reproduce the quantum correlations. But I was under the impression  
that the computationalist goal was to eliminate non-locality. 
Separated experimenters, with as much computing power as necessary, 
cannot simulate the quantum correlations by performing only local 
computations.


You can simulate the whole (multiversial) structure, and the observers 
will find that from their perspective, Bell's inequality are violated. 
From outside, we can see (like Everett saw) that it is just a case of 
self-duplication FPI. (Which brings us back to the preceding thread of 
course).


Locally, Alice and Bob can simulate anything they like, and they can 
simulate universes with non-local hidden variables,  and predict that 
within those worlds the Bell inequalities are violated. But when they 
get back to their own world and compare their results, they will find 
that the correlations between their separate simulations of the results 
of spin measurements at arbitrary angles invariably satisfy the 
inequalities. In other words, they cannot, jointly, simulate the quantum 
results in any world that they both inhabit. The MWI view from outside 
is no different -- non-locality is inescapable.


Bruce

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Re: Is evolution the only complexity generating process

2016-06-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Jun 2016, at 03:17, Russell Standish wrote:


On Tue, May 31, 2016 at 05:04:48PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 31 May 2016, at 02:33, Russell Standish wrote:



Hmm - the "output" of the UD (ie UD*) is a very low complexity
object. The complexity you refer to is actually UD* seen from the
inside by a computationlist observer. That complexity has indeed
arisen through an evolutionary process: mutation via the FPI,


?



FPI is a random process due to only being able to observe a single
branch within a branching process. Mutation is exactly the same,
particularly as seen from the inside of a multiverse. This argument is
made in my paper "Evolution in the Multiverse".


The FPI is more a personal event (or sequence of personal events) than  
a process. The process to which we can attached the random experiences  
is itself non random (just a 3p duplication).


But a mutation is a process. Now, if you assume it is a purely quantum  
process, then you can use the classical FPI to explain the perception  
of evolution (in the multiverse). OK.








The counting algorithm produces a simple object. Complexity is
generated by selecting some subset of that simple object, and it is
the selection which creates the complexity.


Like in quantum mechanics. But the complexity must be present before
we can observe it, and it is mathematically present, like all
branches of Everett Universal Wave.


Why? The opposite clearly appears to be the case. Mathematically, the
UD*, or the Multiverse, are simple objects. Hence their appeal under
Occam's razor.


Simple as a whole (like the everything idea), but it generates all the  
complexities from inside. That generation is out-of-time, and the  
complexity is there out of time too.









To restate above, you are confusing the complexity observed by a
putative internal observer (which by computationalism assumption  
must

exist), and the complexity of the UD*. The former is generated by an
evolutionary process, and high, the latter is low (being equal to  
the

KCS complexity of the UD).


I just use Blum complexity. It exists without the introduction of


I had a look at Blum complexity from
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blum_axioms

--
A Blum complexity measure is a tuple ( φ , Φ ) {\displaystyle  
(\varphi ,\Phi )} with φ {\displaystyle \varphi } a Gödel numbering  
of the partial computable functions P ( 1 ) {\displaystyle \mathbf  
{P} ^{(1)}} and a computable function


   Φ : N → P ( 1 ) {\displaystyle \Phi :\mathbb {N} \to \mathbf  
{P} ^{(1)}}


which satisfies the following Blum axioms. We write φ i  
{\displaystyle \varphi _{i}} for the i-th partial computable  
function under the Gödel numbering φ {\displaystyle \varphi } , and  
Φ i {\displaystyle \Phi _{i}} for the partial computable function Φ  
( i ) {\displaystyle \Phi (i)} .


   the domains of φ i {\displaystyle \varphi _{i}} and Φ i  
{\displaystyle \Phi _{i}} are identical.
   the set { ( i , x , t ) ∈ N 3 | Φ i ( x ) = t } {\displaystyle \ 
{(i,x,t)\in \mathbb {N} ^{3}|\Phi _{i}(x)=t\}} is recursive.

--

Note the key things: Blum complexity is a tuple of functions, one of
which maps programs to integers, and the other maps integers to
programs. This is a far, far cry from the usual notion of complexity
(even structural complexity) which attaches a numerical value to an  
object.


That said, I don't really understand how their examples (time and
space complexity, which are very different beasts from structural
complexity) fit the definitions given, so maybe there are some
problems with the Wikipedia article.



Blum complexity is really the second phi in the {phi_i, PHI_i} above.  
The first one are just the phi_i. The article is unnecessarily complex  
(no pun intended). A Blum measure is any computable predicate on the  
phi_i and the inputs. The two more used are the time to do a  
computation (the predicate which depends on i (phi_i), x and t. What  
need to be able to be answered recursively (by yes or no) is something  
like did the program i with input x stop at time t (or before time t,  
not after!).


The relation between phi_i and PHI_i is comparable to the realtion  
between Gödel's the non decidable beweisbar (Ey(y is a proof of x)),  
and simply the decidable 2-ary predicate (y is a proof of x). ("y is a  
proof ..." abbreviates "y is a number description of a proof ...}.


But Blum's theory works with any decidable predicate, like the number  
of time this or that words is used, or the number of memory- 
allocation, etc.








any observer. Also, in the UD, there is no mutation, and no
Darwinian selection.


I already addressed this. Once you admit the presence of a
computationlist observer (a "view from the inside"), you have both
mutation (via FPI)


I can understand, but that is misleading. A mutation is usually  
thought as a change in a program. The UD just generates (and run) the

Re: Aaronson/Penrose

2016-06-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Jun 2016, at 01:28, Bruce Kellett wrote:


On 4/06/2016 4:16 am, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 6/3/2016 1:28 AM, Bruce Kellett wrote:

On 3/06/2016 4:39 pm, Brent Meeker wrote:
Scott Aaronson's blog on his debate with Roger Penrose is  
probably of interest to the list:


“Can computers become conscious?”: My reply to Roger Penrose
June 2nd, 2016
A few weeks ago, I attended the Seven Pines Symposium on  
Fundamental Problems in Physics outside Minneapolis, where I had  
the honor of participating in a panel discussion with Sir Roger  
Penrose.  The way it worked was, Penrose spoke for a half hour  
about his ideas about consciousness (Gödel, quantum gravity,  
microtubules, uncomputability, you know the drill), then I  
delivered a half-hour “response,” and then there was an hour of  
questions and discussion from the floor.  Below, I’m sharing the  
prepared notes for my talk, as well as some very brief  
recollections about the discussion afterward.  (Sorry, there’s no  
audio or video.)  I unfortunately don’t have the text or  
transparencies for Penrose’s talk available to me, but—with one  
exception, which I touch on in my own talk—his talk very much  
followed the outlines of his famous books, The Emperor’s New Mind  
and Shadows of the Mind.


Read the rest at   http://www.scottaaronson.com/blog/


This is interesting, and I would like to spend more time on it,  
but one thing struck me as I was leafing through


"The third place where I part ways with Roger is that I wish to  
maintain what’s sometimes called the Physical Church-Turing  
Thesis: the statement that our laws of physics can be simulated to  
any desired precision by a Turing machine (or at any rate, by a  
probabilistic Turing machine).  That is, I don’t see any  
compelling reason, at present, to admit the existence of any  
physical process that can solve uncomputable problems.  And for  
me, it’s not just a matter of a dearth of evidence that our brains  
can efficiently solve, say, NP-hard problems, let alone  
uncomputable ones—or of the exotic physics that would presumably  
be required for such abilities.  It’s that, even if I supposed we  
could solve uncomputable problems, I’ve never understood how  
that’s meant to enlighten us regarding consciousness."


This relates to my current obsession with the universal  
applicability of Bell's theorem (and other inequalities such as  
that of CHSH). Consider the statement of the Church-Turing thesis:  
"the statement that our laws of physics can be simulated to any  
desired precision by a Turing machine (or at any rate, by a  
probabilistic Turing machine)". This is not true for Bell-type  
experiments on entangled particle pairs. To be more precise, the  
correlations produced from measurements on entangled pairs at  
spacelike separations cannot be reproduced by any computational  
process. A recent review (arXiv: 1303.2849, RMP 86 (2014)  
pp419-478) points out that violations of the Bell inequalities can  
be taken as clear confirmation the separated experimenters making  
the measurements had not communicated: if they had communicated  
during the experiment then the inequalities would be satisfied.  
The corollary is that there is no possible local computational  
algorithm (not involving recourse to the effects of quantum  
entanglement) that can produce correlations that violate the Bell  
inequalities. In other words, the laws of physics cannot be  
simulated to any desired precision by a Turing machine. (I don't  
think solving NP problems has anything much to do with it.)


If the world is a simulation, i.e. is being computed by a Turing  
machine, then the computation can implement non-local hidden  
variables and violate Bell's inequality in the simulated world (in  
fact all its variables would be non-local since locality and  
spacetime would just be computed phenomena).


Sure, Bell's theorem only rules out local hidden variables. If you  
simulate non-local hidden variables (i.e., get the separated  
experimenters to communicate non-locally), then of course you can  
reproduce the quantum correlations. But I was under the impression   
that the computationalist goal was to eliminate non-locality.  
Separated experimenters, with as much computing power as necessary,  
cannot simulate the quantum correlations by performing only local  
computations.


You can simulate the whole (multiversial) structure, and the observers  
will find that from their perspective, Bell's inequality are violated.  
From outside, we can see (like Everett saw) that it is just a case of  
self-duplication FPI. (Which brings us back to the preceding thread of  
course).


Bruno






Bruce

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Re: Has the mind-body problem been solved (was Re: Has the mystery of Black Holes been solved?

2016-06-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 03 Jun 2016, at 21:48, Brent Meeker wrote:




On 6/3/2016 11:26 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
I'd say a rational person is one who can give coherent reasons for  
their beliefs.



Which makes PA into a rational person, even more so than most of  
us. Humans still act like they believe that the only coherent  
reason to believe in something is that the boss say so (and  
everyone know that the boss is always right, especially when wrong!).


That is a coherent reason and a person giving it is rational.  Being  
rational doesn't mean being right or having all knowledge.  "Because  
the boss said so." may be a weak reason if the the boss is  
expounding on international politics, but an excellent reason if  
theboss said, "You'll be fired if you're late to work again."


OK, but to derive physics, we can limit ourselves to arithmetical  
statement. It is irrational to believe such a statement just because  
the boss or the teacher say so (in practice, it can be rational if the  
goal is to have a good note, or to impress a mate, but again that is  
not relevant).







But even PA, if asked about why she believes in x + 0 = x, might  
say something like "obvious", or "Instinct",


Those are not coherent reasons.   I find it telling that you use the  
religious formulation "believes in" rather than just "believes".


Hmm, I am afraid it is just me mishandling english.





or "I have been told", or "I have many examples", or 


Those are weak reasons.



All beliefs in physics are of that kind. We believe that F = GmM/r^2  
only because we have many, but a finite number, examples.


I cannot prove to you that x + 0 = x. Well, I could prove it from the  
K and S combinators axioms, but I will use implicitly my intuitive  
number knowledge to choose a definition of numbers such that we  
recover x + 0 = x from the combinators axioms. In fact all beliefs in  
*any* theory is never 100% rational. But when we work in a theory, or  
when we interview a machine, we start from things that we have few  
doubts upon.


To be clear, I say that a belief by a machine M is rational when M can  
makes its hypothesis clear (so I can define in the machine's language  
"believed of p by M", say []p, and which is such that the machine  
believability is closed form modus ponens, that is we have
[](p -> q) -> ([]p -> []q), and, in our case, that the machine can  
prove (also) [](p -> q) -> ([]p -> []q). In fact, to make the proof  
simple I use:


M believes p entails M believes []p  (normality)
M believes []p entails M believes p  (stability)
M believes [](p -> q) -> ([]p -> []q).

Löbian machines believes also []p -> [][]p (and eventually, it is a  
theorem: []([]p -> p) -> []p. The reason is that by being a machine,  
we get the diagonal closure and the fixed point properties from which  
Gödel and Löb theorem follows (in the ideal case of sound machines).


To believe does not, indeed, mean to be sure that it is true. You can  
use "assume" instead of beliefs. All laws are assumed, in the applied  
science. In science, we *never* say that some statement are true. We  
say that a statement is an axiom, or a theorem, or that is confirmed  
experimentally. We just cannot prove anything from a finite number of  
observations.


Bruno





Brent

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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: R: Re: Aaronson/Penrose

2016-06-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 03 Jun 2016, at 12:22, 'scerir' via Everything List wrote:


Bruce:
This relates to my current obsession with the universal  
applicability of
Bell's theorem (and other inequalities such as that of CHSH).  
Consider the
statement of the Church-Turing thesis: "the statement that our laws  
of physics
can be simulated to any desired precision by a Turing machine (or at  
any rate,

by a probabilistic Turing machine)".



To be sure, this has nothing to do with Church thesis. Church thesis  
is just the thesis that Intuitively Computable = Turing Computable. It  
does not refer to physical-computable. Intuitively computable means  
that there is a an algorithm, human sharable, that we can use to  
compute a function in some finite (but arbitrarlly long) time on each  
input.





This is not true for Bell-type experiments
on entangled particle pairs. To be more precise, the correlations  
produced from
measurements on entangled pairs at spacelike separations cannot be  
reproduced

by any computational process. []


For this I refer to my post of yesterday. Quantm computer do not  
violate Church thesis, but do violate the thesis that all universal  
machine can emulate each other in polynomial time. (time is used here  
in the computer science theoretical sense, it is not necessarily the  
physical time).


Bruno



### Unless something strange is going on here. In example, I'm  
trying to
understand something J.Christian wrote recently.. See Appendix D,  
page 8 and 9

in this paper https://arxiv.org/pdf/1501.03393v6.pdf

BTW L. Accardi, (Accardi and Regoli, 2000, 2001; Accardi, Imafuku  
and Regoli,
2002) has claimed to have produced a suite of computer programmes,  
to be run on
a network of computers, which will simulate a violation of Bell's  
inequalites.

See also http://arxiv.org/pdf/1507.00106v3.pdf



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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Wigner (1970) on hidden variables and Bell's theorem

2016-06-04 Thread 'scerir' via Everything List

Just an interesting paper by Wigner on hidden variables and Bell's theorem
(of course the paper is well known but it is not so easy to find it).

'On Hidden Variables and Quantum Mechanical Probabilities' 

Wigner, Eugene P. 

American Journal of Physics, Volume 38, Issue 8, pp. 1005-1009 (1970) 


http://dropcanvas.com/#qBYMyi9b4hcDra

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