David Miller wrote:

>The first half of this is a good observation.  The second half, however, 
>is all wrong.  Sorry:(
>  
>

Why is that?  If the coefficient of friction remains constant (an 
assumption) then the frictional force should be proportional to the 
normal force which is directly related to torque. No? (I am thinking of 
the conrod and crankshaft bearings, or is that not where the majority of 
losses occur?)

Joe


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