On 24 Mar 2011, at 13:56, Luke Smith wrote: > As I understand it, there is both a written record of where the rights of way > go and the definitive map is in addition, with the written record taking > precedence?
My experience is that it probably depends, and that the statement and map are very closely interwoven. My local definitive statement contains descriptions like: Public Footpath 001/023 - Follows the track to Orwell Farm from the A123 until top of hill, then south west to Bridleway 002/054. So it's usually a good enough description to know what right of way 001/023 refers to, but it's too approximate to draw out tracks in OSM. It's probably accurate enough for you to identify an existing track in JOSM (that follows the path as it exists on the ground) but it's not enough to determine that the track in JOSM is accurate and even if the track in JOSM is an accurate representation of the path on the ground, it's not enough to tell you that the path on the ground still strictly follows the right of way (the right of way IS what's indicated on the map, even if the path on the ground wanders and weaves). Anyhow, now I wander onto something else that I've been thinking about. Hope that helps. I've discussed this issue with my local council and although they appear in principle to be amenable to allowing us to use the definitive statement in OSM, but neither of us are really sure what it'd be useful for :) Question. Is OSM as a project really that interested in mapping the legal route of the right of way, or are we more interested in the utility of knowing that a track on the ground is considered to follow a right of way and that you can ride your horse/cart/motorbike/bicycle down there without being hassled? James _______________________________________________ Talk-GB mailing list [email protected] http://lists.openstreetmap.org/listinfo/talk-gb
